Friday, January 17, 2025

Someone went after NYTN


A Hater Said I’m OBSESSED with White Americans
NYTN | 17 Jan. 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Oznq6xSdJLg


[I was flabberghasted at hearing this and noted the following]

As someone who has followed your channel for quite a while, I don't think Walter Plecker or Anglo-Saxon Club qualify as "white Americans like everybody else" ... it's like saying Christopher Gregor of NJ qualifies as "US Military like everyone else" ...

Pope Pius XI, being from Desio in the very North, was arguably as white as Mr. Plecker was, but had a thing or two to say about this nonsense in Casti Connubii ...

(Checking the dates: Racial Integrity Act of 1924 - noted, 1924. Casti connubii, 1930. Sounds to my best mathematical instinct as if it came after 1924. I came across a guy who pretended he had "condemned Nazi Eugenics in Mit brennender Sorge" when there is basically one paragraph in that one covering all the mischief, implicitly including eugenics, but not explicitly limited to that one ... he condemned Eugenics before there was an NS régime, and vivat Patton for getting Bavaria rid of Eugenicists! (In power)).

[Further on, the actual words were given]

Did he seriously say:

victim mentality mixed race 2:14 individual that don't fit in going 2:16 through an identity crisis that's what 2:17 these videos 2:19 portray


or are both transscript and subtitles wrong? I am in a cyber on the lower floor without the headphones this evening.

Have you ever read an essay by C. S. Lewis called "Bulverism"? Fairly classic example. It combines a logical fallacy of ad hominem with a cultural veneer of "understanding" ... and is pronounced with what to some might at least appear as a strong superiority complex. That's how Bulverism differs from other versions of ad hominem.

5:59 "it's the language of fear"

That's kind of Bulveristic ....

It could be fear. It could be hatred. It could be an intellectual blind spot (like the guys who imagine the genealogies in Matthew 1 and Luke 3 are in conflict and disprove the Gospels, like a man who has never come across Sosa-Stradonitz and imagines a patrilinear only genealogy to be complete and also univocal). It could be a superstition from Darwinism. It could be an extrapolation from limited case studies where mixed race children really did not quite belong (I met a half-Dane, half-Greenlander, who complained about this [being his] case) and sometimes behave badly, and then interpret that biologically instead of sociologically.

It could very easily be a case of Eurasianism, an ideology that pits continental Eurasia against Anglo-American geopolitics and loyalties. Have you ever heard Putin say that in the US "white Christian Churches are a minority" ... (yes, he did that, he also didn't fathom that Russia could be exporting porc to Indonesia, forgetting it has both tourism and a Christian minority). Like a) without Baptists and Pentecostals, Christians would be a minority and b) Baptists and Pentecostals are essentially "black Churches" that for some reason differ from "white Churches" ... I don't think fullblown Eurasianism is very prevalent among Racist or Racist Close US Citizens, but it could be a residual version of it.

And I don't think anyone adhers to anything as complex as Eurasianism or its ... well, see the sample ... substitute by simply one emotional reaction. Precisely as no one ever (or very few) adherred to Albigensian abhorring of sexuality simply from being raped and overreacting. Heresy is a real thing.

9:18 "legal requirement"

Not in Louisiana. A black slave wasn't a citizen, but a black who had been emancipated was a French or later US American subject / citizen.

[One more thing]

One more caveat. Each soul is created individually by God.

Apart from mum and dad, each body inherits different amounts from different ancestors, but even the body doesn't simply determine the soul. Ancestry is not THE sole or main or supreme key to identity, and some would deny me to be Catholic because in my recent ancestry I have Protestants and those who were Catholic in a stepfamily, and some of the others were Jewish.

I have been discovering my Catholic identity since age 16, and some would like to foist on me waiting to live that as a married layman, until I've "explored my Jewish" / "Swedish" (Protestant or Secularist) identities.

Thursday, January 16, 2025

When is Magisterium Infallible?


Critiquing a Sedevacantist on the Magisterium
The Michael Lofton Show | 16.I.2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rkofwxWIjl8




0:05 Before I see who it is, my guess is, it's not a Conclavist ...

3:18 I would say, secundary objects actually are objects of supernatural faith.

I'd like you to show a pre-Conciliar source for your criticism.

By the way, while St. Thomas distinguishes between primary and secondary object of faith (supernatural virtue), he divides it differently from you, making lots of things in the Bible on his division secondary, as they are not the salvific truths themselves, but the circumstances in which they are revealed.

5:21 I see you invoke one other scholar saying the Ordinary Universal Magisterium can teach non-definitively.

The point made would be:
  • whatever status explicit or implicit the actual individual participants in the universal magisterium at any given point intend or express, the status changes because it is "universal" ... this is not a who, it is the exceptionless totality of a who
  • unlike when a doctrine is only held by Pope and most bishops, even vastly so, the actual exceptionless quality of the agreement makes a difference making the status definitive.


The opposite view seems to be a cop-out to make room for heretical statements like:

  • Mankind is way older than the generations of Luke 3 indicate
  • Joshua thought he was commanding Sun and Moon to stand still, but God made sure it was the Earth that stopped rotating
  • You could make a parallel about Jesus as Man and Jesus as God about exorcisms (Church of Sweden progressives in the 19th C. did so [unclear, see link])
  • Taking more back of a consumed in use commodity (food or money) than was lent with no justification other than the time is a licit way to conduct loans.


In each of these cases, the consensus of centuries makes for a longstanding Universal Ordinary Magisterium, and if you want to push the heresies, it's obviously convenient to pretend the Church wasn't teaching that definitively.

The opposite attitude was shown in Trent Session IV, the formulation "tenuit atque adhuc tenet" where a magisterial statement to be such cannot be in overt conflict with all the past of the Church.

[The idea of "Authentic Magisterium" is, as he said, "Merely Authentic Magisterium", that criticism is pertinent.]

To conclude, what you say about the Merely Authentic Magisterium, no, it cannot teach heresy. Including not yet defined heresy.

The teaching of heresy auto-deposes from magisterium. In the case of Nestorius, Pope St. Coelestine I confirmed this, 430, and this before a solemn condemnation of Nestorianism in 431.

When you say "the Ordinary Universal Magisterium" is a "who" or a "subject" I think you take the "Pope and Bishops" as operative for the who.

However, for Ordinary Universal Magisterium, there is, like for Universal and Peaceful Acceptance (sth your and my line of Popes have lacked since 1950 at least), a circumstance beyond the general "Pope and Bishops" namely, the lack of opposing voices among the bishops (and for acceptance, the faithful).

This circumstance is providential, not a structural automatic occurrence, and as such constitutes a how.

You could pretend from your pov that Pope and Bishops teach Evolution. Well, Bishop Williamson doesn't, the Sede bishops don't always (though one of them went for Deep Time), Pope Michael I who became a bishop in 2011 didn't, and since Thuc consecrated the antipope (to which I once adherred) "Gregory XVII" of Palmar, and that man rejected even Deep Time, I think it's safe to say Thuc rejected at least Evolution. That's how your position cannot be Ordinary Universal Magisterium even if it were Pope and most Bishops.

However, for centuries past, it is beyond reasonable doubt that the Ordinary Universal Magisterium has taught that not just mankind but the material universe as such was created no further back than the genealogy of Luke 3. This is because you do not find one opposing voice within the ranks of the magisterium or otherwise among Church Fathers. This circumstance is providential, and therefore this view is infallible.

Two Things Below the Video By Wagner


The Ignatius Study Bible: Critical Appreciation
Scholastic Answers | 16.I.2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=asg7IdIdnao


43:45 Have you seen the Lapide commentary where stars being ensouled is refuted with reference to 19th C cosmology or astrophysics?

I think it was the commentary on Day IV.

This was the Lapide comment I could find online, do you have the original text for day IV?

As I recall it, stars being moved by angels is not even mentioned. To some that's a synonym for ensouled stars.

1:07:27 I would say:

  • references to the execution are about Jesus and are blasphemous.
  • references to the disciple of Joshua Ben Pekharia have been taken as about Jesus, and have therefore become blasphemous, but I think they could be about Odin (the man who came to Uppsala presenting himself as a god), and therefore have not been originally blasphemous. Nor have they been taken as about Jesus by all Jews (except the Russian ones).


In connection with the latter, I thinks the Sons of Zebedee had a father who once was believed to be Thor. Before he repented.

He called them boanerges (this means "moo-makers" or "bullroarers" in Greek) because "sons of Thunder" (the explanation is not of the etymology of boanerges as a word, since that is clear).

Reconstruction:
Jesus: hey, sons of Thor!
James and John: nooooooooooooooo ...!!!!!!
Jesus: OK, sorry, oxmoaners, then!

[Most other questions, I agree with Wagner. Except he mispronounces Migne.]

[This latter comment brought me some online harrassment:



In this case the Commie could be a Catholic:



What would you call a parody of the bride riding a good candidate for the Scarlet Beast?]

Wednesday, January 15, 2025

Shakespear, Marlowe or Catholic?


The blatant ABSURDITY of Shakespeare's authorship
bastian conrad | 27 Oct. 2024
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1MkwdE7nZ-w


bastian conrad
@bastianconrad2550
What might be the reason for the absence of any commentary to a proposal for solving the undoubtedly existing Shakespeare riddle???

I

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@hglundahl
The other candidates have deeper problems. This includes Marlowe.

Most people by now know that a merchant would at this time and place not be illiterate. At least those taking an interest in the Middle Ages and the Tudor times.

II

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Plus the Catholic hypothesis actually makes sense of the difficulties:

Was Shakespeare a SECRET CATHOLIC?! w/ Dr. Aaron Urbanczyck
Matt Fradd | 16 Aug 2024
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8dWFzXEykbU

Yes, Fundamentalist Exegesis is Catholic


And "The Interpretation of the Bible in the Church" is neither a pre-Conciliar, nor a Catholic document.

Here’s Why Catholics are not Fundamentalists
Janelle Lara | 4 Jan. 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_Oc7SegC51I


we're coming from a Catholic 2:19 perspective: Catholics are not biblical 2:21 literalists we are not 2:23 fundamentalists


Would you mind giving a good reference for that.

By good I mean sth like before Vatican II.

The man I call Antipope Ratzinger doesn't fit that bill.

2:37 "intellectual suicide"

Big words. Little substance.

The fundamentalist approach is dangerous, for it is attractive to people who look to the Bible for ready answers to the problems of life. It can deceive these people, offering them interpretations that are pious but illusory, instead of telling them that the Bible does not necessarily contain an immediate answer to each and every problem. Without saying as much in so many words, fundamentalism actually invites people to a kind of intellectual suicide. It injects into life a false certitude, for it unwittingly confuses the divine substance of the biblical message with what are in fact its human limitations.


There actually are human limitations apparent in the Bible, but positive factual errors are not one of them.

Ratzinger loves big metalanguage, but I don't think "The Interpretation of the Bible in the Church" is actually giving even one concrete example on how we'd be intellectually better off for saying "Jesus said so and so just because as a human he believed his culture" ...

The problem with that approach is, Ratzinger was way too much a believer in his human culture, which took its mapping of past human cultural biasses as proof of the own superiority over the other ones.

He elsewhere is said to have taken a distance from the Syllabus Errorum, sometimes on the lines of there is no returning to it. To us actual Catholics there is also no returning to it, since we never left it.

3:05 God is not all the intellectual content of Scripture.

We also have:

"What does God say about this?" or "how does He react to that?"

And the this or that is usually something which human language is very adequate to communicating.

This is an extension from a discussion of Genesis 1, days. "What if they are days from God's pov, in God's language, which isn't human language?'"

Genesis 1 was written for men and God is quite capable of adapting the language to the audience. He is not able to distort the content to get through to the audience, God is not a liar, but He is capable of adapting the language.

3:16 Language is universally translatable.

Sometimes you may need circumlocutions, and sometimes you may find a translation error.

Four corners of the Earth, well, in Latin and Hebrew, it works just fine, but Greek "tes ges" or Germanic "of the earth" is not the good translation. In Germanic, it's better to write "of the land" in Apocalypse 7:1. I'm not sure what the best Greek would be, probably a word which the Semitic audience of St. John was swapping for "ge" by Hebraism, but I am sure, this geographic feature of the continents is verified by geography. Try Point Barrow, Anadyr, Hobart, Cape Horn, back to Point Barrow.

3:51 It's not the least idiotic.

When the meaning of a term changes, either it survives along the new meaning, or another term replaces it.

Language change in general, there are very few things that change in any kind of back and forth in each generation, most of language is actually fixed. This means there is time to repair for things that have changed meaning.

You sound as if you had never read "Language change, progress or decay" by the actual linguist Jean Aitchison, and relied on a super-exaggerated version of the Sapir-Whorf theory.

4:22 Very true.

And sacred tradition has taken Genesis 1 to 11 literally. Here is Haydock on the last verse but really all of Genesis chapter 3:

Concerning the transactions of these early times, parents would no doubt be careful to instruct their children, by word of mouth, before any of the Scriptures were written; and Moses might derive much information from the same source, as a very few persons formed the chain of tradition, when they lived so many hundred years. Adam would converse with Mathusalem, who knew Sem, as the latter lived in the days of Abram. Isaac, Joseph, and Amram, the father of Moses, were contemporaries: so that seven persons might keep up the memory of things which had happened 2500 years before. But to entitle these accounts to absolute authority, the inspiration of God intervenes; and thus we are convinced, that no word of sacred writers can be questioned. (Haydock)


This only makes sense if Genesis was a literal event, Adam and Eve literally optimised a telling of it so it could be easily transmitted and memorised, and it was passed down to when it could be written down, in steps that are few because the patriarchal lifespans were literally 100's of years.

4:59 "historical critical lense"

In itself not a part of tradition.

When applied correctly usually corroborates tradition and therefore also a literal reading.

Very often applied incorrectly, unfactually, by people wanting to relativise that.

5:17 You are somewhat less blessed if you accept a false magisterium, like Antipope Ratzinger, who, as author of "The Interpretation of the Bible in the Church" proved, prior to election, he was not Catholic and therefore not eligible to papacy.

5:35 "intention for the lady" / "for the laity?"

The Biblical text doesn't have one intention for laity and another for clergy.

Tuesday, January 14, 2025

Joe Heschmeyer Tried to Prove "Francis" Pope by Disproving Long Term Sedevacancy, But Dismissed Conclavism with a Handwave (and a Lie)


The Hidden Danger of Mel Gibson on Joe Rogan
Shameless Popery Podcast | 14 Jan. 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NDDrIn9ul2k


Is Mel Gibson Sedevacantist?

I thought it was his dad Hutton Gibson who was so. And he SSPX faithful. But that could be old news, he could have changed his mind.

Anyway, pretending that "Sedevacantism is poison" with no further qualification is going against Catholic doctrine, like doctrines on automatic loss of office on preaching heresy.

Sedeprivationism refrains from judging if such and such is really heretic (which is not strictly necessary, as long as he's preaching heresy) and substitutes the assumption that such and such by illwill is not giving the Church the needed pastoral. And concludes from that that: a) no new Pope can be elected, but b) no one needs to obey him as long as the illwill lasts.

This is suspiciously close to condemned Lollard errors. Conclavism is obviously against this.

I'm noting that the presence of Mel Gibson was not there in LA when the fire broke out.

Perhaps he acted like a human shield in LA, like Lot in Sodom.

5:46 Nuance.

Conclavist Pope Michael I thought you could be Catholic even if you accepted an antipope "displaced Catholic souls" ...

I have not heard his successor reject this tenet.

Obviously, there is a precedent in the idea of St. Vincent Ferrer.

6:50 I could mention some things which in retrospect seem fishy with the fall of Communism.

Most notably that lots of Communist tyranny which before 1990 was restricted to behind the Iron Curtain and Scandinavia (with a family resemblance between Communists and Social Democrats) have since then become pretty commonplace in Europe and I think even in Blue States of the US.

I could also mention that very obvious KGB criticisms of Catholicism have been met with what could be described as capitulation on the part of "John Paul II" ...

  • "Antisemitism" and JP-II makes friends with Jews.
  • "Exclusivism" and Assisi 1986.
  • "Denial of mental care" and JP-II makes a kind of negotiated peace with psychiatrists around the time there is a peace prayer before the Srebrenica massacre.
  • "Science denial" and 1992 JP-II raises Heliocentrism / Deep Space , Deep Time, Evolutionary Origin of Man, from the level of "licence of discussion" to basically the level of doctrine, in a speech, in CCC §283 and perhaps a few more
  • "Biblical Fundamentalism" and 1994 you get Exegesis of the Bible in the Church, which is not just theologically problematic, not to say apostatic, but on top of that includes actual calumny against those "separated brethren" who happen to be Fundies.


7:25 "outspoken critic against Communism"

The same can be said of Alexander Dubček.

Nevertheless, he was a Communist.

18:29 Let's recall that Freemasons sometimes have, if nothing more, at least a ritualistic appreciation of the supernatural.

They could have feared:

a) that a heretic was totally invalid (and could be easily replaced)
b) that a valid (if not sufficiently heretic) Pope could be protected by infallibility from doing their bidding.

To avoid the first, the secret real Pope, if Siri was that, would impede a replacement and also keep some kind of check on the Antipopes, so they didn't blow it by being too overtly heretical.
To avoid the second, they could have wanted an Antipope, with no supernatural protection at all.

It could however be noted, that there is a theological loophole for Catholicism here.

Once Siri was out of the way, i e dead, in 1989, this could not be repeated. No one can validly agree to assume the office of "secret Pope" as such an office is not there in Catholic theology, papacy being a public office. Siri could validly assume papacy, if he was elected, because he wasn't expecting to be forced to secrecy. The then forced secrecy would then not invalidate his already done election, if such. However, unlike what some Sedevacantists say in order to avoid Conclavism, Siri could have no successor in a similar role. If you know in advance you are keeping secret, and masquerading in a sham submission to someone you think a sham Pope, that would vitiate the assumption of office in a Siri successor of that type.

This means, if, on Siri's death, the Antipope appearing to be Pope did not repent of errors, did not take the chance of becoming a true Pope, then the see would be clearly vacant to all except those taking Wojtyla for a Catholic. And a conclave would be able to be held.

Whether Siri was elected Pope or not, by the way, not decided by Pope Michael I, he was already dead and could have no successors agreeing in advance to stay secret, and so, the election of David Bawden does not conflict with Siri still being Pope. A man who has already died isn't. Even St. Peter and St. Linus are more metapopes than actual Popes now.

I would also disagree on the sentiment that accusing the Vatican II Popes of error is a weak case. There is much for which structure and procedure can and should take precedence over content, but definitely not all.

22:09 Siri had previously been used to secrecy:

On 14 March 1944, Siri was appointed Auxiliary Bishop of Genoa and Titular Bishop of Livias by Pope Pius XII. He received his episcopal consecration on the following 7 May from Cardinal Pietro Boetto at the St. Lawrence Cathedral. He became vicar general for the archdiocese on 8 September 1944. During his tenure as an auxiliary, he was a member of the Italian resistance movement in World War II. He negotiated with the Nazi forces surrounding Genoa and met secretly with partisan leaders, eventually arranging a Nazi surrender that avoided further bombardment of the city.


The reason Siri goes along with it, if the theory is true, which I neither affirm nor deny, is, partly, he has heard very bad things will happen if he doesn't, but partly, he counts on being an active member of a secret resistance. That aspect would have some support in his actual acts, since he founded the Latin Mass only Institute of Christ the King Sovereign Priest.

It may be noted that two of the men supposed to have been covered by his secrecy had also been in the resistance, both Roncalli and Montini had been active saving Jews. Not a bad thing per se, but they may have rubbed off some of their theological often modernism.

22:33 The spiritual purity of the Assisi Cathedral was compromised for the bodily saving of hidden Jews.

When German soldiers were in they sung Gregorian, when they were alone, they sung the Amida prayer. You know, the seventeen prayers ... one or two of which are traditionally directed to the destruction of both Christianity and Christendom.

23:41 If Siri tried to resign, he may have been drugged for such an attempt.

You know, mental care and things like that.

In a kind of reflex from back in his time in the resistance, he may also have concluded that he was doing good as secret Pope.

25:13 No, it's not totally inexplicable.

Siri accepts, Siri steps towards the balcony, someone tells him in a chilly voice which will not be ignored "I would not do that if I were you" and starts explaining, like the threat and things, then it takes 30 minutes to persuade Siri to an invalid abdication.

Anjfjgjigulorajjsjdiiisitipansdln*
@Anjfjgjigul
The Church can not universally and peacefully accept a man as pope without that man being pope. No matter what perceived imperfections in this or that election, the Holy Spirit guides the Church to infallibly proclaiming 'This man is the successor of Peter'.

* Note
yes, this is the actual user name of this channel:



Hans-Georg Lundahl
@hglundahl
@Anjfjgjigul True.

But by some decade into the Vatican II Popes, the people claiming to be Roman Catholics are not all universally and peacefully accepting these Popes. So, that sign is lacking for them.

Btw, X in so far as "such and such is Pope" / "was Pope", "such and such was a Council" is not dogma, but (when true) Dogmatic fact.

I'm not certain infallibility proper applies to these. They are however related to infallibility.

Anjfjgjigulorajjsjdiiisitipansdln
The spiritual purity of a Cathedral is not compromised by the presence or prayer of unbelievers. What did Paul write about eating meals prayed over by pagans?

Don't forget also that Christ explicitly calls us to works of corporal charity.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@Anjfjgjigul You forget that any act of non-Catholic worship in a Catholic Church building calls for a speedy act of exorcism and re-inauguration.

The question is not whether the Gregorian was compromised by the unbelief, it's about the Amida prayer. That's an act of non-Catholic worship.

I am not denying we are called to works of corporal charity. But I am saying this was in fact priorised over the spiritual purity of the location. King David being received in the tabernacle is a different story. He and Abimelech had the same belief.


27:59 I think he means "same name and number" ... and yes, he would actually be wrong.

Due to one Benedict in the Middle Ages being disputed for some time, people have during their lifetime born Benedict number such and such and then another took the same name and number, because the Medieval Benedict in question was finally considered an Antipope.

He might be making a point about never anyone taking the same name and number as a very undisputed Antipope. There was a very ruthless man named John XXIII who was basically immediately seen as an Antipope, and that's may be what Mr. Gibson tried to say.

28:47 Not fifth, but fifteenth. 1410 to 1415.

34:16 Your premiss 1 is actually a non sequitur, as any Conclavist or Mysticalist would tell you.

34:35 "valid electors, valid electoral process"

As the electors have varied as to type and process over the centuries, no type is per se "de jure divino" meaning that not just a) a valid Pope, but also b) a real case for epikeia could dispense with every and any positive rule that's put in place by men, however so good willed they may be, even wielding the highest authority.

That a Pope needs to be Catholic is however de jure divino.

34:48 Yes, Popes will certainly lay out the normal electoral process, which holds provided nothing really unforeseen happens.

But they have not laid out in detail a roadmap for all the steps to take should a heretic be wrongfully seemingly "elected" to the papacy.

Even Cum ex Apostolatus by Paul IV only tells us what NOT to do, namely accept such a Pope. He actually went further, canonically, since to his mind it was sufficient to have been a heretic to be invalidly elected, as per his disposition. This is not de jure divino, a repented ex-heretic could be a valid Pope if fully Catholic while being elected. However a non-repented still-heretic couldn't and possibly, if that could happen, a Pope who lost the Catholic Faith could even lose office. St. Robert thinks this couldn't happen, St. Francis of Sales is less confident, both agree if it were to happen, he would lose office on manifesting his heresy.

So, your buttressing of Premiss 1 relies on "strict constitutionalism" in a sense that the Church doesn't know. Any more than the German Reich, prior to 1945. I'm not saying Hitler was a good ruler, but uniting Reichspräsident and Chancellor into one doesn't make him an usurper.

So, the answer is, improvisation is acceptable in such a case.

Now, if the case is wrongly perceived, the improvisation is wrong.

There would be Conclavists or Palmarians or Tremblayists who would at the very least need some time to stomach that "John Paul II" was a Catholic. If they did, they would normally renounce their position. Instead, there is a heavy talking down to us as if we didn't exist, in some cases sth like Communist political psychiatry may have been applied, I hope this wasn't the case for Michael I, but I certainly know there have been rumours of his being a nut case, and those rumours have been used to smear his adherents. Not exactly the approach you want in order to end a schism the human way, like with means resembling Constance Council.

So far, I do see some red flags with Conclavist pastoral, but they are nothing like the red flags in Novus Ordoists' and some SSPX-ers' doctrine and a very heavy-handed approach meant to basically silence this kind of opposition. Even with unfair means. For the record, I have never claimed to be a Mysticalist or a Conclavist Pope myself, but some have tried to get at me by "he thinks he is the Pope" ... which I do not. When I had some opportunities, not all of them, I submitted theologically relevant material to his scrutiny, he didn't find fault with my orthodoxy. I would not have done that if I had regarded myself as the Pope.

36:06 Siri died in 1989. 440 days or 441 days inclusive before the election of David Bawden in 1990, on Our Lady of Carmel's Day.

You are making a case for "the last Pope made these dispositions, but they are now impossible to comply with." Fine, you have proven that a papal election according to the provisions of Pius XII is no longer possible, if the 1958 election of Roncalli was invalid.

But that does not equate to no electoral process other than his provisions ever being open to the Church.

1) If Siri was elected, prior to death or apostasy, he may have made a provision that anyone figuring this out could go about any way they saw fit, provided they were first in line and provided the candidate was per se eligible. The one thing he cannot have validly disposed is having continuing secret successors.
2) If he wasn't, the simple fact that the provisions of Pius XII were no longer applicable meant they were no longer validly conditions for the achievement of a valid papal election.

36:28 You know Church history well enough to know that cardinals are not a jure divino condition for a valid election.

Recall what I said about two things being able to dispense with any actual Church law?

1) A Pope.
2) Epikeia, if the act is really targetting a way to get out of the impass.

37:09 Pope Michael I. Now has a successor, Pope Michael II.

37:39 You are lying about his clerical status.

Ordination 2003
by Bishop Joseph V. Galaroza
Consecration February 6, 2010
by Archbishop Joel Clemente
This is from the wiki page:
Rogelio del Rosario Martinez

He was a bishop even before he was elected, for that matter even before he was reconciled to Pope Michael I.

Bishop Galaroza first filipino bishop under the Brazilian Catholic Apostolic Church for the Diocese of the Province of the Philippines


In other words, he was ordained from the Duarte Costa line.

I must admit I have some difficulty tracing the bishops mentioned. Doesn't mean they don't exist, doesn't mean they weren't or aren't bishops.

People have lied attributing lay status to Pope Michael I, after the Gaudete weekend of 2011.

This is a massive red flag in anyone trying to argue against Conclavism.

38:09 I do not recognise that legal electoral process trumps orthodoxy.

If anyone from "John XXIII" to "Francis" was otherwise legally elected, but was not a Catholic, he would not validly be elected if already outside the faith and would not validly remain Pope, if falling after election. "John Paul II" to "Francis" are prime candidates for this treatment, since all three have explicitly supported Evolutionism.

It's both scientifically impossible, but even worse, impossible to square with the Faith, once the details of the scenarios are scrutinised.

For instance, Jimmy Akin is on record as saying one theory acceptable to (their / your) Church is a collective fall. This involves Supralapsarian calvinism, since collective decisions are not under the control of any single human freewill. They are not willed acts as such, they are only preceded and followed by willed acts.

He's also on record as saying one theory that's acceptable is Adam was a representative, like Christ was later. No, before the fall, mankind didn't need a representative to face God.

But if you accept a literal Adam, literally ancestor and unique such of all of us, anything except Young Earth Creationism falls apart.

40:00 Michael Lofton noted, there actually was a conclave.

Benevacantists assembled and elected "Pope Francis" hoping this valid election (unlike the one in 2013) would give him the charism of infallibility and shoehorn him into becoming orthodox.

40:21 There is such a thing as not having legal authority, but still being authorised.

By the way, David Bawden didn't just claim he was the Pope, he called a conclave, as per epikeia. Necessity trumps law.

The presence of lay electors, of lay electors certainly outnumbering any clergy, of elections with only 6 electors (Innocent II, if I recall correctly), and receiving ordination and consecration after election all have precedent. The one question that does need an answer, to which has answer was no, is, was there not previously a Pope?

"John Paul II"   heretic.
Gregory XVII of Palmar / John Gregory XVII of Québec   invalid process of nomination, since, while mode of election is de jure humano ecclesiastico, the fact of an election seemed to him de jure divino, since included in a legal definition of Pope.
Linus II / Pius XIII   not yet around.

41:45 I have myself argued against how the Dimond Brothers try to get around this one.

They point to a thing comparable to perpetuous successores in Jeremias 30 or some of the closely following chapters, but forget that the terminus a quo is when Christ comes.

The terminus a quo for perpetuous successores is St. Peter on Pentecost or rather at Lake Genesareth.

Pope Michael I was pretty certain, when Christ returned, there would probably be a Pope. He assembled his emergency "conclave" to ensure this.

42:19 Notice what Vatican (I) is not saying. It is not saying only legal elections in normal and foreseen form assure the survival of the papacy.

Which brings me to the fact that your premise 1 is faulty.

43:07 Dimond Brothers may fall under that anathema.

Whatever excommunication a Conclavist might fall under, if Conclavism were false, that anathema is not one of them.

43:50 Excellent syllogism as to form, but you have failed to show how premiss 1 holds.

Without it, your syllogism is false.

44:20 Conclavism is not built on Siri having been elected. To Pope Michael I, this was mostly a subject for agnosticism.

Monday, January 13, 2025

Indo-European


Question: Has genetic evidence discredited the Anatolian hypothesis of the Proto-Indo-European expansion?
https://www.quora.com/Has-genetic-evidence-discredited-the-Anatolian-hypothesis-of-the-Proto-Indo-European-expansion/answer/Brian-Collins-56


Brian Collins
BA in Linguistics & Slavic Languages, University of Washington (Graduated 2014)*
6 years ago
There are a lot more problems with the Anatolian Hypothesis than genetics. All Indo-European languages except the Anatolian ones have cognates for the inventions from the Secondary products revolution around 3,000–4,000 BCE.

Words like wheel and axle that were invented after agriculture was pioneered in Anatolia, are cognates across almost all Indo-European languages except the Anatolian ones.

We would not expect this given that most of those inventions came from a wide diverse set of places unless one Proto-language borrowed words for those inventions before diverging. This puts PIE after the Anatolian Agricultural Revolution by a few thousand years.

But yes, genetic evidence is adding more weight to criticisms of the Anatolian Hypothesis.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Oct 7 2024
Genetic evidence has neither discredited Anatolian hypothesis, nor Sprachbund Hypothesis (with the original Sprachbund on the West Side of Anatolia to East Side of Balkan and Greece).

You see, we can see both genetic influx from Anatolia and genetic influx from the Yamna Culture.

Neither comes with written documents attached, so the palaeogenetics can’t tell us the Anatolian input was NOT Indo-European and cannot tell us the Yamna input was.

If you want my hunch, we are dealing with a series of Sprachbünder and the Yamnaya migrants became a superstrate. To different languages remaining different.

The argument from wheel and axle could favour those words belongin to the Yamna superstrate.

I LD after Epiphany
12.I.2025

Brian Collins
That’s not what a Sprachbund is. A Sprachbund is languages that don’t share many common words sharing common grammatical or phonological features due to contact. Since Indo-European languages share words following predictable sound changes they aren’t a Sprachbund or multiple Sprachbünde.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
You are not a specialist on Balkan linguistics, right?

“ A Sprachbund is languages that don’t share many common words sharing common grammatical or phonological features due to contact.”

Where does that “don’t share many common words” come in?

Contact will augment the number of shared words too, you know.

Greek and Albanian are “separate branches of” Indo-European, meaning they should share sth like 25~30 % of the words, like English and Russian, but in fact they share c. 50 % vocabulary. Because of the Balkan Sprachbund.

Brian Collins
How much shares lexicon do Albanian and Turkish, both also part of the Sprachbund, have? English and French are in different branches, share even more, but are only considered to be in the SAE Sprachbund along with many languages that share much less vocabulary (such as every language in Europe).

Most of the features of any Sprachbund are grammatical. Loanwords don’t make a Sprachbund on their own.

If you look at the academic definitions, the term was coined to exclude vocabulary.

Sprachbund - from Wikipedia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sprachbund


“In a 1904 paper, Jan Baudouin de Courtenay emphasised the need to distinguish between language similarities arising from a genetic relationship (rodstvo) and those arising from convergence due to language contact (srodstvo).[2][3]

Nikolai Trubetzkoy introduced the Russian term языковой союз(yazykovoy soyuz 'language union') in a 1923 article.[4] In a paper presented to the first International Congress of Linguists in 1928, he used a German calque of this term, Sprachbund, defining it as a group of languages with similarities in syntax, morphological structure, cultural vocabulary and sound systems, but without systematic sound correspondences, shared basic morphology or shared basic vocabulary.[5][3]

Later workers, starting with Trubetzkoy's colleague Roman Jakobson,[6][7] have relaxed the requirement of similarities in all four of the areas stipulated by Trubetzkoy.[8][9][10]”


Octave of Epiphany
13.I.2025

I

Hans-Georg Lundahl
“Most of the features of any Sprachbund are grammatical. Loanwords don’t make a Sprachbund on their own.”

That I would actually agree to.

Nevertheless, my point is, Sprachbund situations, when prolonged have a tendency to make vocabulary shared too. For English and French, like for Greek and Albanian, a certain map** gives 56 % distance for each (i e 44 % similarity, one can suppose).

They have also been in a far closer Sprachbund (like languages of the British Isles) for centuries, up to St. Joan of Arc making French less popular and the plague making it less mastered in England. That’s way closer as a Sprachbund than SAE.

As to SAE, it is a Sprachbund of another type, having had for centuries Latin as a common élite language. Some might want to distinguish Sprachbund totally from superstrate, substrate, adstrate, I don’t.

Now, German to Latvian, Lithuania, of the Baltic and to Sorbian of the Slavic has a distance on the same map as 70 % or more. It’s distance to Greek is 86 %.

English to Welsh is 80 and French to Breton 72 %.

My point is, the expected lexical outcome of a Sprachbund (of the more close knit type) is more similarity than of having a common presumed root in PIE.

So, one point about your proof for common origin is the lexical similarity, and then arguing from this not being a necessary result of all and any Sprachbund that it cannot be the result of a Sprachbund.

Another one is the sound laws since, which certainly wouldn’t be lexical products of a recent Sprachbund. But I never said the Sprachbund or Sprachbünder were recent ones.

If pre-Celtic, pre-Latin, pre-Germanic share a word “cols-” meaning “neck” by Sprachbund or by common descent from PIE, somewhen in 1000 BC or earlier, either way it will be “collum” in Latin, “hals” in German and Swedish, I think Dutch too, and I think this is also the origin for Middle Irish “coll” which means “head” instead of neck.

When it comes to shared vocabulary with Turkish, in the Balkan Sprachbund, it may be noted that both Turkish and the languages of often Orthodox nations on the Balkan have since back then undergone a voluntary process called Purism. 1700 might have been a better time to check.

As to Trubetskoy:

Nikolai Trubetzkoy introduced the Russian term языковой союз (yazykovoy soyuz 'language union') in a 1923 article.[4] In a paper presented to the first International Congress of Linguists in 1928, he used a German calque of this term, Sprachbund, defining it as a group of languages with similarities in syntax, morphological structure, cultural vocabulary and sound systems, but without systematic sound correspondences, shared basic morphology or shared basic vocabulary.[5][3]


He could be meaning “or shared overall basic vocabulary” since otherwise his expectation would have been shown wrong.

14.I.2025

Brian Collins
Most of the features of SAE were missing in Latin from my understanding, but co-evolved in many Western European languages under influence from each other.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Including, not least, the development of Latin into Romance.

II

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Two links for the map I referred to and for 430 common words in Turkish, Albanian and Greek:

https://alternativetransport.wordpress.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/05/lexical-distance-among-the-languages-of-europe-2-1-mid-size.png

https://www.richtmann.org/journal/index.php/jesr/article/view/2833/2795

* Note
Upvoted by:
Rich Alderson, BA, MA, doctoral research in Indo-European linguistics and
Giovanni Roversi, MA. Linguistics, University of Oslo (2017)

** Note
Click this link:

https://alternativetransport.wordpress.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/05/lexical-distance-among-the-languages-of-europe-2-1-mid-size.png