Showing posts with label AbbyLeever. Show all posts
Showing posts with label AbbyLeever. Show all posts

Wednesday, November 26, 2008

...on Physics from Netscape Boards

H G Lundahl wrote:
Quote from Rita, Liberal education thread:


"It would upset me because they would be taking up valuable time in a science class to discuss something that isn't science related (you forget that I am a physicist and know what is science and what is pseudo-science).

Also, if your kid is coming home telling you that he evolved from a monkey, then there is a problem with the ability of the teacher or your kid misunderstood.

I will not get into that 'know the truth' bullshit."



So knowing the truth is bullshit, but knowing what is science and what is pseudoscience is somehow not bullshit? Tell me, Rita, tell this "pre-enlightenment" scholastic (in point of literal fact: post-enlightenment, but VoP was thinking about type rather than actual dates): granted that only truth can be known and that science means knowledge, how does one distinguish science from pseudoscience if knowing the truth is bullshit?

How can we know that astrology, augury, heliocentrism and darwinism are pseudosciences, unless we know that the stars or angels who guide their voyage are no rulers of our fate, nor are the demons, to whom the Roman and Etruscan priests sacrificed the animals cut open for augury, nor does a neat calculation or ingenious explanation dispense us from believing our senses, nor indeed can 28-chromosomed animals evolve into 56-chromosomed (though it could have occurred in plants)?

And, since energy is Greek and potency is Latin for what can be but is not yet, how can potential energy be a special form of energy, and how can what can be but is not yet have at all a determined quantity?

If you consider what IS in a stone lifted from ground, the further from ground, the less gravity, as that force decreases with square of distance acc to Newton, while wight remains same.

If you consider what can be but is not, the more you lift it, the greater potential energy do you say it has.

So, energy is not something that is, but only what can be.


valencequark wrote:

no, energy is. period. in fact, thanks to hamilton and others, energy is central in much of physics. you seem to forget that there are many kinds of energy, not jsut gravitational potential energy. there's kinetic energy (the stuff of motion), other types of potential enrgy (electrostatic, for instance) and even mass has energy (the famous e=mc^2 a la special relativity). but, what the hell is the point of this drivel besides illustrating your misunderstanding of what energy is?

-vq



H G Lundahl wrote:

God is. period.You attribute one of God's attributes to energy and forget, not just that its shiftyness excludes the truth of your statement, but that even one of its so-called shifts, potential energy, is potential, meaning possible rather than actual.Hans Georg Lundahl
My answers, so far interspersed with vq's answering post:

valencequark wrote:

how do you know that "god is"?

Apart from historical revelation, there are the five proofs of God's existence that are parodically repeated and answered by modern physics. How so? Well, you seem determined on two points:

a) that there is something that simply IS, neither created nor destroyed

b) that it is energy, kinetic, potential, chemic, electromagnetic and so on all through "its" shifting and manyfold shapes.Your first point simply agrees with the third proof of God's existence, your second point is as blasphemous as erroneous: blasphemous by giving the attributes of God to something else, erroneous by violating the ontological characteristics of absolute existence.

Hans Georg Lundahl

and you still misunderstand potential energy. i agree that the terminology can be confusing, but make no doubt--potential energy exists. it is not the potential to "have energy", it is the potential to have kinetic energy. kinetic energy is no more real than potential energy, it is just more intuitive.-vq

The potential to have kinetic energy is clearly a potential to have potential to physic work.The potential to have kinetic energy is clearly a potential, a can-be, not an act, not an is.

No, if you say that energy IS, it is you who are misunderstanding potential energy, not I. Are you a physicist? If so, you are welcome to the debate. If not - well, the first message was a challenge directly to Rita, who is one and claims to know science.

But rather than defend her claim against my challenge, she choses to call me a raving lunatic and have me on IA. [=Ignore Author, she told AbbyLeever so on other message on same thread]

Hans Georg Lundahl



My answers after each one of his paragraphs.
valencequark wrote:

there are NO proofs of god's existence. unless you know of some empirical test and are holding out on the rest of the world.



There are five ways of proving God's existence, of which the first three are:

1 things are moved, whatever is moved is moved (kept in movement or change) by something, which is actually (not just potentially) moving it (keeping it in movement or change), and if that something is moved (kept in movement or change) by something else and that in turn by something else, one must sooner or later come to something which moves everything else and is moved by nothing, which everyone (except modern physicists) calls God.

2 things are caused, kept in movement or rest, change or invariance, and whatever is thus kept in movement or rest or any kind of causation, must have some cause, ultimately one which isn't caused, which everyone (except modern physicists) calls God.

3 things exist contingently (without their existence being in and of itself necessary), but whatever exists contingently must be kept in existence by something else, which must have actual existence, ultimately by something, the actual existence of which is in and of itself necessary, which can therefore neither be created nor destroyed, which everyone (except modern physicists) calls God.

secondly: the existence of energy in no way has anything to say about the existence of a deity.



If you are thinking of deities like Thor and Odin or Lugh Lamh Fáda or Ra - you are perfectly right. But we are kind of talking about the God whose name is He Who Is, The Being. In other words: existence itself. And you are giving the attribute of neither being created nor destroyed to something else, absurdly enough to something which is admittedly POTENTIAL. But the fact that you give that attribute to anything at all means clearly that (unlike Kant)you admit that there must be something which can neither be created nor destroyed: and so far you are in agreement with the third proof of God's existence.

i would like to see which of your "proofs" agrees with modern physics, seeing as how physics has NOTHING at all to say about religion. please understand that i know a lot about modern physics, and i have not seen any reference to deities. perhaps you would let me in on your little secret.

-vq



See above.

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever budges in on physics

Read Abby's short comment before my answer, pls:
AbbyLeever wrote:



... and calling something you don't understand god proves that god exists?

The universe is not limited by our inability to imagine it.
  • A) What do you mean something I don't understand? That God is ineffable? True. Or that I do not understand the proof in question? Bullshit. I do and so does anyone. Even if Kant pretended not to.
  • B) The universe is limited by the fact that it consists of limited things. It is obvious that I am not the first mover of Heaven, nor are you the first cause, Abby, nor is vq the necessary and eternal existence. And the same can be said of any part of the universe. And of their parts - Hiroshima disproves the indestructibility and indivisibility of "atoms" all right. To anyone who didn't realise it before.

But some idiots who call themselves physicists really want very badly to place the principle of movement and change, of cause, permanence and existence, within the limits of the physical, the manyfold, the continuous (though they tend to deny the reality of continuum by atomism), the moved, the changing, the caused, the things that would obviously for any sane man be seen as also kept in existence and whatever permanence it has by something else. Something outside it. Therefore they pretend that something they call energy is this first mover, cause, necessary existence. But that contention is disproven by the potentiality of energy, especially apparent in potential energy - while the first mover, cause and necessary existance must be actual to move, cause, (put and) keep in existence anything else.

Hans Georg Lundahl



AbbyLeever wrote:


"our" is inclusive of the entire human race.
"our inability to imagine" how the universe operates is no limitation on it to keep on doing what it is doing, has done, and will do.


Mr Abby:
your stance is that of Kant. If Kant denies the knowability of these things, how can he/you agree with physics claiming energy to be that indestructible and uncreated which he has/you have admitted to believing unproven (admitted to be unproven as far as you are concerned) except deceptively by our lack of imagination?

Hans Georg Lundahl

PS - thanks for not adding from eternity and to eternity, but even claiming that the universe is active is bad enough, considering how potential and therefore passive all its observeed parts are.


AbbyLeever wrote:

Not my stance - read it again ...


Not below this one, since it has been erased: so your stance is NOT that "the universe isn't limited by our lack of imagination", i e denying knowability of God's existence, or it is NOT accepting modern physics, i e accepting the indestructibility of energy, or it is NEITHER? I don't think I misread those.

HGL

Voice of Principle budges in on me, so does MicoMan and valence quark, AbbyLeever makes points about history of physics

VoiceOfPrinciple wrote:


<7> Abby: You've done a good job of trying to persuade Hans of the value of modern science, but I'm afraid your effort will not be crowned with success. Hans does not accept the scientific method as you and I understand it. Hans' world view begins with two fundamental and unquestioned postulates:

1) God exists; and

2) All things must trace back to God.

If any line of inquiry leads to either of these first principles, or any of their corollaries, being called into question, Hans will reject it, as occurred in my discussion with him concerning the rotation of the earth.



I have disproven this contention about my arguments previously, but Voice Of Principle dishonestly repeats an insulting and disproven charge. Although he has previously admitted to having misunderstood my argument. Rather, it is you who reject any line of inquiry which proves the existence of God or anything seen to be obvious corollaries of it. And then here and previously shift the responsibility of doing that on me.

HGL

Debating Hans, however, is not a waste of time. The effort involved forces you to improve your own arguments and to increase your knowledge base, and those are good things in and of themselves. <7>



If improving your arguments is what you want to do, why don't you get started? Like answering my vindication of Classical Mathematics and its ability to understand logarithms, without changing the definition of number.

HGL

MicoMan2U wrote:

Good points. We can also be assured that if Hans really had a valid argument then it would have hit the front page of the paper. Currently there is no evidence to support deity and if there were it would certainly be the biggest news story ever.



Not in the Jewish/Masonic dominated press you read. In the history of learning it is old news. Only the textbooks claim that the proofs were later refuted - which is not the case. Because the refutations are sophistical rather than logic.

HGL

But I agree with VP that each new confrontation only serves to strengthen our ability to enlighten others to the reality of a secular existence, free from the chains of religious suppression.



Religious suppression! My foot! As for strengthening your ability, are you dreaming?

AbbyLeever wrote:


sorry about the html overrun.. fixed


AbbyLeever wrote:


VOP - I agree, it also serves to show other creationists that their position is not a homogeneous one - there is disagreement in the ranks. I accept Hans for what he is, and enjoy those discussions where I am not put through the brick wall.

Mico - also good points on the development argument.

Quark - it is easy to lose your temper with Hans - he is a "pre-enlightenment scholastic" and lives surrounded by (imho) brick walls that to him are reasonable limits on rational versus fantasy thoughts. The bit on numbers is 'enlightening', and the thoughts shared on the inquisition, to me, are disturbing but understandable. Read down through this [Classic Math] thread if you didn't read it before.




Thank you for beginning the thread with that nasty insult which is a total sideline to the issue like you keep cluttering up my threads with: like Inquisition and Galileo or modern medicine and surgery on a thread having to do with mathematics!

Doing a search on "pre-enlightenment scholastic" may help you understand. (a couple below, and I am sure Hans would provide more if asked): 1st link 2d link

Hans - my position is that there are things that we do not know, that what the reality is behind those things is outside our current ability to imagine, but that our inability to imagine it doesn't prevent it from being true or understandable at a future date.

The proper name for preferring that hogwash to the rational explanation that already does exist is obscurantism.HGL
Before the earth was found to be round it was logical to think it flat and unimaginable for some to even consider it being round - this did not prevent the roundness from occurring.
When was "before the earth was found to be round"? Certainly NOT in the Middle Ages, as they are called. The Church Fathers, Dante, St Thomas Aquinas and the rest of Medieval authority knew the earth was round. Bringing in the subject of Galileo being tried on account of believing it to move or Bruno being burnt for believing in pantheism has nothing whatever to do with the subject. And as for pre-classic antiquity, we have not read any logic defense of Babylonian flat earth cosmology - except by a Nestorian who misunderstood the Holy Scriptures, as heretics do.
Having a 'freethinkers' mind open enough to consider options on the universe allows me to consider the fascinating developments in evolution, archaeology, sub-atomic particles and universe inflation with the anticipation of finding new understandings of life, the universe and everything.
Being promiscuous and infertile in sex gives you a freedom of sweet imaginations - so does roaming and inconclusive thoughts in philosophic matters. I do not admire freethinkers more than wankers or profligates who use the condom. Sexual organs were made for procreation and imagination and reason for reaching conclusions.
HGL


valencequark wrote:

so now you are a conspiracy theorist too? why don't you pu tall of the energy that you waste whining about logarithms and international sceintific conspiracies into learning something worth learning?

-vq

If you call my observations on who dominates the so called free press conspiracy theories, you seem to be either part or victim of their conspiracy. Victim let's hope.

HGL

AbbyLeever wrote:

I will be happy to let anyone read the whole of that [Classical Math] thread, which was my point in referencing it. Here is the start:

http://boards.netscape.com/netscape/art_threaded.mbl?boardId=472202&artNum=94442&sort=pref&tsort=msgs&

a word of caution though - posts only last 1 month so review it soon.

If you change your Preferences, you can read older posts.

Quite a diatribe Hans. Let the facts fall where they may.Like that the flat earth belief was the dominant belief at one time - did I say medieval? no.

Neither did you present any other period when it was supposed to be dominant. Furthermore knowing that my Theology and Scholasticism are what you would call medieval, and you accusing me of being a flat earther, it would seem to be the most natural meaning of your words.

did you refute that it was at one time so? no.

Neither did you prove it or prove it had any point in relation to me and my creed.

Is this belief now proved wrong? yes, by both your and my acknowledgments.

Wrong? Yes. Once dominant or universal? ?

Does that validate my statement about it? Yes. Thank you.

The other point too, please. Do have the courtesy to go into details.

HGL

...on classical Greek mathematics, or logarithms for use on yardsticks

I wrote:


On a thread on geocentrism vs. heliocentrism, I and VoP differed on whether there are any NUMBERS other than NATURAL NUMBERS: whole numbers from one and potentially ad infinitum, not as if there were any infinite number, nor as if there were not any number that is really the greatest number in the universe, but because there is no particular arithmetic reason known to us why it should be the greatest, nor do we know how great it is: it is only actually greatest, while numerically there remains a potency to greater numbers, without limit.



I said nay, nothing else is numbers, fractions are ratios rather than numbers, pi and sqrt(2) are geometric incommensurable proportions rather than numbers or ratios, negative numbers are misnomers for natural numbers of "negative" or negated things, and I stick to it. However Voice of Principle challenged me on logarithms. According to my definition of numbers, he said logarithms would not exist.


In a sense, I do not think they do, but only in a sense. There is no arithmetical 10log of 2, because no potency of two exactly equals a potency of 10, just as there is no arithmetical sqrt(2), because 2 is not a sq #.


This said, I must go on to say that my classical Greek definition of numbers does not stop me from seeing what the 10log of 2 is, in so far as in any sense it is. Rather, I see it more clearly.


Even earlier, I had a hunch to figure out the 10logs anew, but in fractions expressed in duodecimal fractions rather than in decimals. But it is a pretty hard work to figure out the ninth root of ten (cubic root of cubic root) and put it in the fourth potency (square of square) just to get at the value for 10log : 4/9.

A few days ago, I started anew.


10 to 1/3 must be more than two, because 8 to 1/3 is two. 10 to 1/2 must be more than three, because 9 to 1/2 is three...


Before going into my preliminary results, a little terminology:
  • 1' (foot)=12" (inches)
  • 1"=12'" (lines)
  • 1'"=12 "" (points)
  • 1'=12"=144'"=1728""
The smallest unit points is not a current English unit, but the French pié du roi (1/6 of Charlemagne's body length) is subdivided ultimately into 1728 points du roi - analogically I speak of points as the 1728th part of any foot-measure.


The cube (3d potency) of ten (=1000) is less than the tenth potency of 2 (=1024). So 3:10 is less than the 10log of 2.
  • 144:10=14 2/5
  • 14 2/5*3=42 6/5=43 1/5
If 1=1', 43'"1/5 is the lower limit of 10log of 2.


Next line is of course 44'"=44:144=11:36. And the 11th potency of ten - 100,000,000,000 - is greater than the 36th potency of 2 - 68,719,426,736 - so 44'" is upper limit for 10log of 2 in the first approximation.


4 is the square of 2, and to find the 2d potency of a number, you multiply the logarithm with two, according to general rule that adding logarithms means multiplying corresponding numbers.


The 10log of four (=10log of 2*2) would thus be between 86'" and 88'". 87'" come in between. 87:144=29:48. Is that more or less than the 10log of 4?


More. Which means that as 88'" are reduced to 87'" as upper limit for 10log of 4, so the half must be reduced from 44'" to 43'" 6"" as upper limit for 10log of 2.


To get the 10log of 5, subtract 10log of 2 from 1 (=10log of 10). To get that of 25, add it to itself. To get that of 2.5 subtract 1' from 10log of 25. Add 10log of 5 and subtract another 1', and you have the 10log of 1.25 - and when it comes to the 10log of 3 I jumped straight onto the 10log of 9: 1020 is less than 921, but 1021 is more than 922. So the 10log of 9 must be between 20:21 and 21:22. If it is expressed in duodecimals it is easier to halve to get the 10log of 3.




My results so far:

10log of 2
> 0' 3" 7'" 2""
< 0' 3" 7'" 6""



10log of 4
> 0' 7" 2'"
< 0' 7" 3'"


10log of 8
129 - 131'"


10log of 5
> 0' 8" 4'" 6""
< 0' 8" 5'"

of 25
> 1' 4" 9'"
< 1' 4" 10'"


of 1.25
> 0' 1" 1'"
< 0' 1" 3'"


10log of 9
> 0' 11" 5'" 1""5/7
< 0' 11" 5'" 5""5/11



and of 3
> 0' 5" 8'" 6""6/7
< 0' 5" 8'" 8""8/11

Always presuming that 1=1'.


Now, if VoP would pls check the accuracy of my most accurate logarithms (2, 3, 4, 5, 9), he may see for himself whether my clinging to Classic maths has stopped me from understanding logarithms!


Now for a theoretical definition:

  • a logarithm is not a number, but EITHER a ratio between the (whole number!) potencies of two numbers, the base and the number whose logarithm it is, so that
  • if basea=numberb
  • then the logarithm is a:b
  • OR a geometric irrational proportion that can only be approximated to above
  • and furthermore expressed in either case as fractions of an arbitrary length unit, so as to compare with real or virtual counting slides (is that what you call them?) the potencies of numbers, so that multiplication of numbers can by succesful fiction be expressed as addition of potencies and divison by subtraction, potencies by multiplication, roots by division.


No need to dub logarithms numbers in order to understand them, then!

Hans Georg Lundahl

Continued:The fact that there is no such a thing as a 10log of two is also proven by the fact, that the closer approximations to its value - the LESS they have of the definition of logarithm, i e ratio between exponents of EQUAL potencies.

In order to prove this, consider that 87:288=29:96 is a closer upper limit than 44:144=88:288=11:36.

Now, will the potencies 1029 and 296 be more or less equal to each other, than 1011 and 236?

Two96 is
79,228 quadrillions
162,514 trillions
55,647 billions
658,951 millions
950,336,

which is more than 20 quadrillions off the 100,000 quadrllions that form the potency 1029.

Clearly this difference is greater than not just the difference between 1011 and 236, but even greater than any of the number involved in that real inequality and nearest possible equality.

Oh, yes - when I had taken the sweet trouble (like a crosswordpuzzle) of calculating 296 in a few grid systems, I found it quite as worthwile to go up a few potencies of two by doubling.

31:103 is a closer lower limit (closer than 3:10), because
10 quintillions
141,204 quadrillions
801,799 trillions
122,900 billions
345,849 millions
643,008

is greater than 10 quintillions.And the upper limit can be drawn down to 32:106.

The new approximations are:
0' 3" 7'" 4""8/103
0' 3" 7'" 5""35/53

Which I found out in proving that what is thus approximated can be infinitely approximated and never reached because it doesn't exist.
HGL

Résumé of mathematic debates with Voice Of Principle:

  • a) He attacks my argument against the regress to infinity "infinity cannot be passed through" as having been refuted by modern mathematical understanding of infinity, also he attacks my logic on logic thread by claiming there is reason that goes counter to logic and is still true
  • b) I answer that every number is finite, a multiple of one, and that every number is rational
  • c) He counters with saying that Greek math's thought so, but PI and sqrt/2, being irrational, disprove this
  • d) I answer that I know very well that PI and "sqrt/2" are irrational, it is the number part of their categorisation I disagree with, since they aren't numbers but size relations
  • e) message disappears
  • f) when I repeat the point, VoP claims my limited understanding of number cuts me off from understanding the great new "discoveries" of math's since Newton
  • g) On a thread on geocentrism/heliocentrism, Rita claims the main argument for heliocentrism is that Copernican hypothesis of Universe makes accurate calculations of planetary movements possible
  • h) I counter saying that mathematic fictions can make calculations easier without being true to mathematic realities and give as example the fictitious negative rule of squares (a - b)sq = asq - 2ab + bsq, proving this is geometrical nonsense if taken to the letter, step by step, as contrasted with real rule (a - b)sq = asq - bsq - 2b(a - b), which is true to geometry, involves no supposition of negative numbers existing, but is less handy
  • i) VoP claims I misrepresent algebra and claims it doesn't involve any fiction, repeating that my limited understanding of mathematics cuts me off from many great discoveries
  • j) I disprove both his points by this thread, calculating the 10logarithms of 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9, 25 and 1.25, especially refining the logarithm of 2, while saying that it is not a number and what it really is: a relation, and, since exponents must be whole numbers, a fictitious relation between exponents of 10 and 2 when their powers equal - which Eratesthenes has proved they never do. To substantiate my claim of calculating the log of 2, I show my calculations in part and give the values in duodecimal fractions, corresponding best both to my old dream of making counting slides on a yardstick and to my calculations - and leave it to VoP to convert the duodecimals into decimals to check my accuracy
  • k) VoP does not answer, but AbbyLeever, who has not followed my debates does, repeating VoP's misundestanding of my arguments.If he had been a zen buddhist, I think he might have understood my mathematics better - not that that would have saved his soul of course, but it would have been more stimulating on this board.

Hans Georg Lundahl

Tuesday, November 25, 2008

...to AbbyLeever on my classical Greek logarithms

Abby Leever had only read first part before posting what I answer.

AbbyLeever wrote:

This is a forest and the trees argument. It is like saying there really aren't any words in the english language, just the 26 letters. This is proven by the fact that whatever "word" you claim exists can be expressed by a certtain combination of letters.



I haven't claimed there are no numbers. I have claimed and still claim there are no numbers except the natural numbers. The 10log of two is not a number, it is a fictitious ratio between the exponents of ten and of two were the potencies are equal. Fictitous precisely because no potency of ten can be equal to any potency of two - that would involve one & the same number having two different sets of prime factors, one with only twos and another with an equal amount of twos and fives.

OK. That is not the kind of proof of nonsensity that would make all the words in English nonsense. Get it?


You can take any number there is and express it as a fraction just by going out to the point where you run out of decimals in your calculations from old age - each number expressed as a denominator with base 10 to some horrendous power and the top being the decimal as far as you have figured it out.



Which doesn't prove that there is a number for anything that can be expressed by a horrendous number of decimals.


The classical greeks understood PI. They also understood the "golden ratio" for a rectangle of same side to side ratio as the remainder after a square has been removed from one end equal to the short side - that ratio is 1/2 +/- [squareroot(5)]/2.



Yes - and they understood that pi and sqrt(5) are no numbers, nor rational proportions, but rather spacial proportions between incommensurables - and that cannot be exactly calculated, only exactly construed by geometric means.


Denying that a number exists does not negate it's existence. The world is not limited by your lack of understanding.



Nor extended by yours.


I can say that "Hans Georg Lundahl doesn't exist" and I am much more likely to be correct, because you could be just another alias for some weirdo that likes to create havoc on the board rather than discuss things rationally.



Discussing things rationally is what I do - but some weirdos like you cause havoc by refusing to understand when perfectly rational arguments are good proof.


Moving to base 12 doesn't accomplish anything 'special' to the calculation. PI in base 12 is just as real as PI in base 10 or even base 2. Why don't you try base 37? OR tell me what the diagonal dimension of a square with side = 1,000,000,000,000 miles is in inches. Take your time... please.



How many feet/yards are there to an English mile?

Seriously: the point with duodecimals is that the logarithmic values can be expressed as falling between this and that duodecimal point - besides it is fun and the calculation hasn't been done, AND every inch, line, point would be expressed in terms of something divisible by 2 and 3, so only few measurings would NOT simplify by dividing both sides of ratio by potencies of 2 or 3.

OK

AbbyLeever wrote:

The point, luddie, of the letters and words is that this is what you are doing with square root and logarithmic numbers issue. You are saying the "word" [squareroot(5)] doesn't exist. It does exist and denial doesn't make it cease to exist. All numbers are constructs, ideas of value, and claiming one doesn't exist is pure denial. But you are used to denial aren't you?



I can prove the sqare root of five doesn't exist arithmetically: 5 is not a square number!



I can construct with a straight edge, ruler and marker (eg classic greek math) a distance that is represented exactly by the golden ratio. Given one dimension I can predict the other every time with this calculation and it will be correct.



I never said it doesn't exist geometrically: there is a square exactly five times as great as the square size one: its side is the diagonal of an oblong with sides 1 and 2.


You cannot give an exact representation of that distance or make any such prediction of the value only because of self imposed limitations - the description is there, just like the rest of the universe is there.

10 = 2 raised to the (x/y) power (and the proper word is power, not "potency" - drugs have "potency")

Prove there is no value of x and y that make this statement false.

12 inches to a foot, 3 feet to a yard, 1760 yards to a mile, get going luddie the diagonal of the 1,000,000,000,000 mile square is? ... take your time, please, take all the time in the world .... the time it takes the world to go all the way around the sun, the time it takes the sun to go all the way around the center of the galaxy, the time it takes the galaxy to move into a new portion of the universe ... if you get my drift ...

ps - you are not OK (and you still need to divide by 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, etc. so no base will fill your needs, ever).



My point exactly: whatever base is used for a system of logarithms, the only rational logarithmic proportions will be those of the powers of the base - or of a square or cubic root of it. Other logarithms are ARITHMETICALLY chimerae - but chimerae that can be approximated.

AbbyLeever wrote:

luddie, luddie, luddie

how many times: saying something isn't true doesn't make it false, it just makes you limited in understanding. the statement "I can prove the square root of five doesn't exist arithmetically: 5 is not a square number!" is not a proof of anything other than a statement of ignorance. further:

IF

I can prove the square root of five doesn't exist arithmetically: 5 is not a square number!



is a TRUE statement THEN

there is a square exactly five times as great as the square size one: its side is the diagonal of an oblong with sides 1 and 2.



is a FALSE statement

IF

there is a square exactly five times as great as the square size one: its side is the diagonal of an oblong with sides 1 and 2.



is a TRUE statement THEN

I can prove the square root of five doesn't exist arithmetically: 5 is not a square number!



is a FALSE statement (and it is, you just proved yourself wrong)

your diagonal is the number for the square root of 5 as much as the numbers 1 and 2 used to create it.




The diagonal in the 1 by 2 rectangle is greater than the 2 side, but smaller than the 2 and the 1 side together - right?

So it is greater than 2 but smaller than 3 in some respect. But it cannot be a number, since there is no number between 2 and 3. It is size. And size as related to another size without there being any least common measure that can be numbered to form both sizes. The sizes are incommensurable. This is a great proof that size - unlike number - is infinitely divisible, non-atomic.

Arithmetic deals in numbers: multiples of one, each defined as one more added (to one or) to another number. They start with 2 and go potentially on ad infinitum without ever reaching infinity actually.

Geometry deals with sizes and size relations: some being ratios with denominator 1 (yard:foot=3:1), and therefore improperly called numbers, some with another denominator (foot:yard=1:3), called fractions, and some that are not ratios but always fall between ratios: to which belong the relations perimeter:diameter (PI), side to diagonal of inter alia square and 1*2 rectangle. Size is infinitely divisible: however small divisions you make, you can always make them smaller. Some properties of numbers are therefore not applicable to all sizes - and some sizes or size realtions are non-numeric, like the interfractional diagonal:side relations or the non-existent relation of exponents a:b when 10 to the ath=2 to the bth. Non-existent, because no power of ten can equal a power of 2 - that would involve a number having two differnt sets of prime factors.

But give me an alternative GEOMETRIC definition of 10log of 2, I will consider if it is at least as real as the misnomer sqrt of 2.

Hans Georg Lundahl
proud to be a luddite




12 inches to a foot, 3 feet to a yard, 1760 yards to a mile, get going luddie the diagonal of the 1,000,000,000,000 mile square is? ... take your time, please, take all the time in the world .... the time it takes the world to go all the way around the sun, the time it takes the sun to go all the way around the center of the galaxy, the time it takes the galaxy to move into a new portion of the universe ... if you get my drift ...

ps - you are not OK (and you still need to divide by 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, etc. so no base will fill your needs, ever).



I will settle for diagonal of a square 1'*1':

1' 4" 11'" 7"" is too small
1' 4" 11'" 8"" is too big

but not by much.

The diagonal has no common measure.

(no measure common to both itself and the side, that is)

AT LONG LAST, VOP!

You came along just as I was being exasperated. And yes, you are right, that as far as the UNDERSTANDING of modern things is concerned, I am a pre-Enlightenment scholastic, a thomist who would out-thomist Maritain, as it were.

You are right that "the devil" if that is what you like to call it, is in the definition.

The thing is, a few months ago, you saw that I stuck to another definition of number, the old one, and challenged me that it hampered me in understanding inter alia logarithms (not to mention "integral calculus" which has hardly anything beyond the name in common with calculi and the numeri they count). My first message on this thread was my answer to that precise challenge. And I expressed the values in inches lines points

  • - because that way I was neither helped nor hampered by knowing that 10log of 2 is approx 0.301

  • - because it stressed that fractions to me are not numbers, that are expressed in exponents of 10, but values of some continous greatness, like length, which is measured in duodecimal fractions on the scale relevant for a counting stick, in the old system

  • - because I like the old system more than the sham scientific, pseudoexact metre system: in continuous quantity the unit is arbitrary and the measure of all things is (6') a man

  • - because the duodecimal fractions are great for expressing the Fibonacci numbers 89, 144, 233, 377: count as many lines('") and you have good approximations of golden ratio on a handy scale.

Another clarification: when it comes to the RIGHTFUL USE of modern technology, I am ethically a Luddite. If you use the flying shuttle or Spinning Jenny for your amusement or strictly domestic needs of textile - go ahead. If you use them in Wars, when weavers take up arms, or catastrophes, when blankets and clothes and bandage linen must be quickly produced without economic profit - better still. But if you employ them to replace workers in ordinary, peacetime, commercial production, and to compete others who refuse to do so out of business - smashing is what they deserve. That is why I claim to be proud to be a Luddite.

Hans Georg Lundahl

VoiceOfPrinciple wrote:


<1> Hans, I have done little reading and even less posting on this board for the least several weeks due to an acute lack of time. By chance I noticed this particular thread last night and read all of its posts. AbbyLeever has done a fine job replying to various points you have raised, so I am going to content myself with a few general observations, rather than repeat her effort to no practical effect.

The devil, as it were, is in the definition. You have defined a number to be a positive mathematical value with a zero fractional part (that is, an integer). Both I and AL would define a number as a mathematical value. Period. A mathematical value is something which can be transformed by a mathematical process such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, exponentiation, etc. This is the heart of the difference between your conception of a number and those of modern mathematicians.

Having said that, it is far more interesting to ask why you define a number as you do. Some others on this board refer to you as a Luddite. This is both imprecise and misleading. You are in fact a pre-Enlightenment Scholastic. I suspect you regard the Enlightenment as a great misfortune for Western Civilization, since it called into doubt fundamental religious doctrines which you hold near and dear. Anything associated with, or derived from, the Enlightenment (such as modern mathematics) is to you suspect. Hence your insistence on using an historically interesting, but limited, view of the mathematical realm.

I cannot help but close out this post by pointing out a certain irony that may have eluded you. Modern mathematics, at least through the middle years of the 20th century, is almost exclusively a product of Western Civilization. Many of its greatest contributors were practicing Christians. Classical mathematics, to which you are committed, on the other hand, was developed by a pre-christian culture composed of Pagans. It's not just politics that makes strange bedfellows. <1>



AbbyLeever wrote:

Are you done? I believe I am vindicated by VOR in spite of your bombastic retoric to the contrary.
It has been a good laugh.
Do you know how a ship leaves harbor? It raises it's anchor.

--



Vindicated from misunderstanding? NO way. VOP knew from previous encounters how I define numbers, but you should have grasped it instead of accusing me the third time of doing what I didn't. All the while ignoring what I did, although I had said so on the very first post: vindicated the old definitions against VOP's claim they exclude me from knowledge of logarithms. And though he hasn't said so, his silence eloquently tells me he cannot keep that charge up. Holding logarithms to be not at all numbers, but ideally ratios of exponents, when powers of base equal powers of the antilogarithm, most often approximations to that, there being no equal powers, I have given an accurate value for 10log of 2, in duodecimals, my final approximation being 0' 3" 7'" 4"", giving account for my way to it and thereby showing I have not just plagiarised the known value 0.301 - to which it "incidentally" approximates on the lower edge. How did I do it, unless I understand logarithms? How do I understand logarithms, if holding to the old definitions of number, size, relations rational or otherwise as different things rather than lumping all together as "numbers" stop a man from understanding logarithms? Actually, before I thoroughly got the ancient idea into my head, that number means integer, and therefore that everything counted rather than measured, including exponentiation, must be whole numbered, I could not make proper calcualtions of logarithms. Now I know they cannot be in the full sense calculated, I can make them with sufficient accuracy. For the value given for 10log of two, the errors, where powers of two would coincide with powers of ten (which of course they cannot, which is the reason why 2 has no real logarithm) will occur when the counting slides extend to about ten yards: a tolerable error for a one yard pair of counting slides, I'd say.

Hans Georg Lundahl



AbbyLeever wrote:

I am thinking of a number that can be approximated by the number 5
It can also be approximated by taking any number in existence and finding the number that is 1/2 way between it and the number 5. The more you do this the closer the approximation comes.
What number am I thinking of?


A - if it can only be approximated, it is not a number, but a size relation, rational or not.
B - Do you actually mean that the greater numbers you take and get the half distance between it and five, the better the approximation? Or that you call that half distance a number and halve the distance again and again and again? Or that you average the half distances without repeating the halving?
But most important of all: how do you know that you have really taken EVERY number in existance into account? Obviously you cannot.
C - If you are thinking of 5, which you cannot unless the halving is continually repeated, why approximate what you can have exactly?
D - if the halving of the distance is to be done on a surface with some kind of graphs, it would be a mathematical size or size relation - and hence not necessarily a number nor an arithmetic thing (most assuredly not if it can be only approximated), but rather a geometric thing.
E - would that be "e" that you are thinking of? I have run into a description of it beginning with two, continuing with a + followed by a fraction of which the denominator (I think it is) also contains a + followed by a fraction, of which... why take the trouble to find that approximation, when one can just as well find approximates of 10logs for prime numbers by comparing exponents of base and antilogarithm? Admittedly the 10log of 7 is right now wavering somewhere between 121 and 122'", but I am hoping to get to powers where stricter narrowings may be made by ratio of exponents.

AbbyLeever wrote:
(a) I will let pass for now
(b) in an approximation iteration you take the result of the previous step and feed it inot the algorithm to produce the next result (or don't you do that either) so it is your second statement (and yes you can start with any number)
(c) no guesses, I want your mathmatical answer
(d) the halving is mathmatical, just like every one of your precious fractions
(e) no, keep trying...
H G Lundahl wrote:
[[Starting with ten I get: 8 1/2, 6 3/4, 5 7/8 and it would seem that the lower limit for any number higher than five, higher limit for any number lower than five but a limit never exactly reached would be: five.
This brings me back to my objection:
C - If you are thinking of 5, which you cannot unless the halving is continually repeated, why approximate what you can have exactly?

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever wrote:
isn't it obvious?

AbbyLeever wrote:

Hans - are you back yet?

H G Lundahl wrote:
I am back NOW. Yesterday and the day before, I've had other things to do, and it would seem you have had a really fun time these two days.

None of you noticed a mistake in mathematics I did make, though.

No, it isn't obvious. Unless you were thinking of calling these fractions numbers, it is not to the point of our debate. And though I did make the mistake of ending up in 5 & 7/8 rather than 5 & 5/8 in these steps, I certainly did NOT make the mistake of calling 5 & 5/8 a NUMBER in the full and proper sense of the word.

Five is a number, so is six, and as it is the next number, there are no numbers between them. As 5 & 5/8 is between them, it cannot be a number, nor are 5 and 10 IN THIS CONTEXT, rather it is a question of ratios, though it is till only a question of NUMERIC ratios, common to number and size. 5 & 5/8 is, properly speaking, the ratio 45:8 - above 40:8=5:1, but below 48:8=6:1. A ratio is not a number, unless it has 1 for denominator.

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever wrote:

5 is a number
the number 5 is approximated by the series I gave you, but is never reached
the fact that the number is never reached by the approximation is not proof that the number 5 exists, as because of the first statement we agree that it exists
therefor any approximation of a number that does not give a final answer for a number is NOT a proof that the number does not exist
your proof of the existence or non-existence of pi is invalid (note - not proven false, just proven invalid)
and as for the non-existence of numbers between 5 and 6, I just have another set of numbers that are worth twice the original numbers and in it's series then number 11 falls half way between your 5 and 6, exists and is real. It corresponds exactly to 5 and a half, so therefore 5 and a half also exists and is a real number. glad to have you back, and hope you had a good couple of days.
(I just assumed a typo, and it isn't really critical to the argument, like criticising
spelling and grammer is irrelevant to the discussions)

H G Lundahl wrote:

5 is a number in its primary sense - and in that sense the next number is 6, no number coming between.

5 1/2 is certainly a reality, but not a real (meaning true, no issue about whether it belongs to what modern mathematics mistakenly calls "real numbers" being intended) NUMBER in the primary sense of the word.

As you said yourself: its simplest value is 11. Now 11 is not 5 1/2, but rather 5 1/2 * 2. and there is 5 1/2 * 4 = 22. and 5 1/2 * 6 = 33, and so on.

Where 5 1/2 is simply 5 1/2 it is not a number, but a measure, each measure being not a unity in the full sense of the word, but a unity that changes name but not nature by being divided: pizzas, pints of ale, feet and miles, days and years all spring to mind. But there you are not dealing with a number of totally separate items (which is the prerequisite for speaking of number in the full arithmetical sense of the word) but rather of things that in themselves are undivided or accidentally divided: food, drink, size in space, duration in time et c.

When we are speaking of anything that can in the proper sense be called number, namely a number of fully countable things - stones that retain the name or animals or men that change the nature if cut in two - there is no such thing properly speaking as 5 1/2, only 5 1/2 * something else, that else being invariably a multiple of 2 or simply 2.

"5 1/2 *" is not a number: it is a numeric ratio, aka 11:2, which remains identical if the numbers involved are changed in equal proportions: 22:4, 33:6, 44:8 et c. As you will see: every number has a corresponding numeric ratio, but not the other way around. And every numeric ratio can be a size proportion, but some size proportions have no corresponding numeric ratio, because the sizes are incommensurable: whatever arbitrary unit be chosen for measuring exactly one size will be too big or small in any multiple or rational fraction to fit the other: among which you will admit is "sqrt/2" aka diagonal:side of a square, PI, which is short for perimetre:diametre, et c.

Are you finally getting my meaning? Or do you still consider the ancients wrong in saying that every number is a ratio? Or will you after my computation (not calculation in the full sense, since that is only of numbers) of 10log of 2 insist that, although the Greeks were right about it in their definition, they would not get the impressive arts - such as logarithms - of modern maths except by changing the definitions? It was this third point which the thread was all about, after VOP had previously conceded that, according to the ancient definition, PI and sqrt/2 are no numbers.

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever wrote:

What I see is that you make a distinction that for me is totally unnecessary and serves no purpose. It is like arguing that there is only one blue color, when the color can be anywhere on an infinitely variable spectrum.

Consider the dividing of a pizza into pieces as separating the molecules into different groups with each molecule whole and accounted for. And then when I have divided it up into individual molecules, I divide it further into groups of atoms each atom whole and accounted for. And then when I have divided it up into individual atoms, I divide it further into groups of particles each particle whole and accounted for. And then when I have divided it up into individual particles, I divide it further into groups of sub-atomic particles each sub-atomic particle whole and accounted for. And now I am in a fine little problem because the sub-atomic particles are constantly changing, becoming different particles or becoming multiple particles or becoming no particles and so on - there is no "1" there is a vibration around the number "1" that is a probability of being "1" but not a necessity.

Ultimately there is no "1" there is a cloud of possible numbers, that could even be 1.5 if caught in the act of changing from "1" to "2".

Except of course that you will not agree with the modern physics portrayal of matter composition, either.

What I see is that "we are limited in our understanding of the universe by our understanding of the universe" - and your understanding is different from mine. For me your mathematics is a subset of mine, while for you my mathematics includes a fantasy outside yours.

H G Lundahl wrote:

My distinction between number and size - namely number being many as opposed to one, something to which one at a time can always be added from the outside, as far as the arithmetic nature of the number is concerned, discrete quantity; and sizes, weights, other measures being rather continuous quantity, infinitely divisible because any division is already potentially inherent in the thing itself, and furthermore my distinction between them as such - the category of quantity - and their relations, the category of relation, to which belong ratios, pi, sqrt/2, logarithms, but also the most straightforward arithmetic relations, like add or subtract five (same relation seen from the two numeric termini) or neither add nor subtract, is part and parcel of scholastic, Aristotelic, common sense understabding of the Universe.

So far you're right. But what subsets of your mathematics does mine lack? Not logarithms on my showing!

HGL

AbbyLeever wrote:

pi, e, the square roots of all numbers, decimals, fractions, the square roots of negative numbers ... just to name a few are included in my mathematics as numbers.

one could argue that pi is what it is because God wanted us to think and not make it easy. at one level all things in the universe are illusion and what we perceive as reality is based on ideas we have not on hard evidence - is the reality of a cup that you just put down still a cup or the image of a cup?
peace.
My answer, so far:

Abby Leever:
Why do you keep repeating the charge that I were regarding pi, "sqrt/2" or of any other number that isn't a sq#, logarithms as illusions? I do not: if they are false numbers they are real size relations of the proportionally constant sort. Just as a false Hector is a real actor (excuse the pun), or more properly as what is for Baudelaire a false musical tone - green - is a real optic colour!

You say I call only a small section of the spectrum of numbers numbers. Not so: I am not limiting colour to only blue, I am excluding C major from colour!

There is for every number except the one that is the greatset, a corresponding arithmetic relation of so many units greater or smaller like for 5 the relations 5 more than or less than, and for every number including the greatest a corresponding relation of the sort called geometric, though it exists already in arithmetic multiplication and division, namely a ratio: like for 5 the ratio 5:1, five times as many as, which has an obverse, 1:5, a fifth as many as.

Note that 4 is 1 more than 3 says exactly the same as 3 is 1 less than 4. Plus and minus are not indeed the same side of the same relation, but the two opposite sides of it, aka equal and opposite relations.

Equally, 10 is 5 times 2 says the same thing as 2 is a 5th of 10. 5* and /5 are equal and opposite proportional relations, aka two sides of the same relation.

Each numeric ratio has ipso facto a corresponding musical ratio, an interval, but there are intervals that are not in the relation of number to unit, like 1:2 or 2:1, a pure octave, or 1:3 or 3:1, a twelfth, but also number to number ratios, like 2:3, a great (pure) fifth, 3:4 a small (pure)fourth, that do not correspond to any one number or any one arithmetic operation, but rather to two at a time, and confusing numbers with ratios is as bad as confusing pitch with interval.

Furthermore each musical ratio has a corresponding size ratio: just as there is 2:3 the pitch or string length (on a monochord), there is 2:3 the size, like length or surface or volume. But there are also proportions that fall between any two ratios and, a fortiori, between any two numbers. Like pi, "sqrts" of nonsq#, golden ratio, possibly e, certainly logarithms, et c. I am not at all denying that what you call real numbers - NB above zero - are real: I am, repeatedly, saying they do not belong to the category of number but to another category which only in part corresponds to it and also has a part not so corresponding: which is why geometry is a greater science than arithmetic.

As for zero, it is not a number: plus minus zero is a name for an arithmetic relation of numeric identity, as far as addition and subtraction are concerned, just as 1* and /1 is the name for that relation of numeric or size identity, as far as proportion is concerned: in usual terms it is called as many as or as great as. In music it is called the pure first, the same pitch. And as for negatives, the negativity resides not in the number, but in the numeric relation, in what direction it is seen from: which disposes of the pretention of there being "numbers smaller than zero" or of them having any roots, whether sq or cb or bisq or other.

There is thus no number line stretching from negative infinity to positive infinity, which disposes of the objection against any proof of God's existence, that is based on the impossibility of the regress into infinity. And no number surface, except in graphs and in Gauss' imagination. And no numeric infinity, which makes it impossible to identify the Infinity of God with any attribute of the manyfold. And defending these common sense proofs of God's existence and transcendence is the whole point of my issue against modern math's - as well as that the confused terminology and the unceasing appeals to broaden ones imagination employed by math's teachers to defend it, make gifted mathematicians fail by failing to understand the explanations as stated. Not that I was a victim - or I hadn't been able to sort this out, perhaps.

Hans Georg Lundahl

lighting up dialogue with myshkin and finishing it with AbbyLeever

myshkin08 wrote:

wow ... i am saving this.


thank you


AbbyLeever wrote:

again - it is useful information form music.
repeat: for me p is a beautiful number.

H G Lundahl wrote: I have sometimes seen two men together or three or four - but never pi men or e men. Same goes for animals or plants. And actually for minerals too, since even if you divide them, you do not get fractions of them, but the divided parts count as new wholes. What IS it that can be numbered by pi? Measures? Certainly they can be related by pi, but measure is not concerned with number, rather with sizes in unitary things. Pi does not answer the question "how many?" but rather the question "how much more than?" in a proportional matter. It is and remains a size relation, not a number.


Hans Georg Lundahl


myshkin08 wrote:

I begin to understand...
:~)


litt962 wrote:

I wish I did...;(

...


H G Lundahl wrote: "Omnia disposuisti numero pondere et mensura."


The Psalmist praises God for having disposed everything in number weight and measure. If modern mathematics were right in saying weight and measure are simply numbers, it would go "in number, number and number" - which is ridiculous. A half isn't a number, it's a size relation if you mean half as big, a weight relation if you mean half as heavy (and that's the most likely place for half a loaf, though it would be half as big as well) and a number relation if you mean half as many: which may mean any number, as long as you are comparing it to the number twice itself. Whatever can be counted for the sake of counting, and not just as an alternative to weighing or measuring, is counted as wholes and therefore in whole numbers - and that's what the Greeks and any sensible man first and foremost means by number, and that's why pi cannot count as a number. But I've never denied it's beautiful.


Hans Georg Lundahl


myshkin08 wrote:

Thank you Hans.I do not understand all of the math involved, but the Greeks were reasonable were they not?And the psalmist was right to praise God as well...


H G Lundahl wrote: The psalmist certainly was right, as he was inspired by the Holy Ghost.


And the Greeks were reasonable - like reasonable enough to know that size and number are two different kinds of quantity, that some relations can be taken over from number relations to size relations, but some size relations obviously cannot be reduced to number relations. The number relation 3 10/70 (22:7) they knew to be greater than pi, the number relation 3 10/71 to be smaller than pi. They didn't bother about standardising fractions to decimal fractions, but if you work it out you will see that both are just a little above 3.14 but way low below 3.15.

  • 3.140845=3 10/71 ancient lower limit approx
  • 3.14159.pi, modern five decimal accurate approximation
  • 3.142856=3 10/70 anc. higher limit approx


Whatever fraction you use, it will be higher or lower.


Hans Georg Lundahl


myshkin08 wrote:

Hans,
If the Greeks were so reasonable so long ago, in their understanding of things, what do you supposed has happened to propigate so much ignorance, or rather, semantics, in the generations after them?
Enlightenment? (so called)


My answer - so far:


Newton.


According to a source cited in writings of Lyndon La Rouche, he seems to have been an occultist. CSL noted, although he didn't go as far as calling the first modern scientists magicians, that science (in the modern sense) and magic were born in the same area and time, more or less. Bacon of Verulam ("scientist", though he made no discoveries) and Pico della Mirandola (definitely magician, whether in practise or only in theory) shared the same goals. Only the methods differred. If the source "Discovering Newton" is correct, Newton went from one method to another.


Newton made mathematics - irrespective of whether he meant arithmetic or geometry - the new foundation of science and he remodelled the definitions of mathematics (if Voice Of Principle is correct) changing even the definition of number, it seems. Perhaps he was tainted by magic experience of numerology? Perhaps he thought equations done with algebraic fictions wouldn't work unless he called the fictions facts? As a matter of fact they do. There is no need whatsoever to call zero, negatives, irrational size relations numbers to understand them or deal with them. But in magic (remember the Pythagoreans were reputedly magicians) it is thought vital to touch the essence of the matter, and essence is thought to reside in, amongst other things, number. So, if science was to reach the goal of changing human conditions, of making its practitioners the high and mighty benefactors of mankind, it might have been thought vital to call as many things as possible number and as few things as possible - ideally none - fictions. That's when one starts calling pi a number rather than a size relation and 0 a number rather than a fiction and -3 a "number lower than zero" rather than a relation between numbers, showing by how many (3) one number is lower than another (-).


Hans Georg Lundahl



AbbyLeever wrote:


pi, e, the square roots of all numbers, decimals, fractions, the square roots of negative numbers ... just to name a few are included in my mathematics as numbers. ...


Were you just calling e a number? Make a coordinate system. Plot a curve getting above horizon in x=1, which everywhere has the direction coordinates 1:x and therefore in this point the angle 45 dgr, but which changes angle at every point getting flatter and flatter. Now where y=1, x=e. Add the y for x=3 (where direction coordinate is 1:3) to the y for x=4, you will get the y for x=12. That is what natural logarithms are. Are we agreed so far? Good. We were using the words coordinate system, curve, angle - are these arithmetic things or geometric? Are these numbers or figures, dimensions? In my mathematics they are figures (curve) and dimensions (y=height, x=length). Is e:1 a number proportion or a size proportion? In my mathematics it is obviously a size proportion.

Was I saying earlier on that e is no number? Yes. Was I saying it was no size or size relation either? No. Was I saying that a logarithm, having no arithmetic existence nevertheless has a geometric existence? Yes. Was I right on all these points? Yes, thank you.

HGL
Continued:

one could argue that pi is what it is because God wanted us to think and not make it easy.


Pi is no difficult: it is the size relation between perimetre (circumference) and diametre of a circle. It is greater than a 3:1 relation, and than a relation of 223:71, but smaller than a 22:7 relation, greater than 31,415:10,000, smaller than 31,416:10,000. And so on. It is greater or smaller than any given ratio, any given number to number relation. It is irrational and a size relation without any real correspondence in arithmetic.

HGL

at one level all things in the universe are illusion and what we perceive as reality is based on ideas we have not on hard evidence - is the reality of a cup that you just put down still a cup or the image of a cup?


Your believing that is one of the bad things that come with believing all sizes to be numbers, all size relations to be numeric relations or even all relations of whatever quantity to be numbers.

HGL

peace.


If believing all is illusion gives your mind quiet, it is not the soundest mind. True peace has nothing to do with illusion or believing truth to be such.

HGL