Showing posts with label Voice of Principle. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Voice of Principle. Show all posts

Wednesday, November 26, 2008

Voice of Principle budges in on me, so does MicoMan and valence quark, AbbyLeever makes points about history of physics

VoiceOfPrinciple wrote:


<7> Abby: You've done a good job of trying to persuade Hans of the value of modern science, but I'm afraid your effort will not be crowned with success. Hans does not accept the scientific method as you and I understand it. Hans' world view begins with two fundamental and unquestioned postulates:

1) God exists; and

2) All things must trace back to God.

If any line of inquiry leads to either of these first principles, or any of their corollaries, being called into question, Hans will reject it, as occurred in my discussion with him concerning the rotation of the earth.



I have disproven this contention about my arguments previously, but Voice Of Principle dishonestly repeats an insulting and disproven charge. Although he has previously admitted to having misunderstood my argument. Rather, it is you who reject any line of inquiry which proves the existence of God or anything seen to be obvious corollaries of it. And then here and previously shift the responsibility of doing that on me.

HGL

Debating Hans, however, is not a waste of time. The effort involved forces you to improve your own arguments and to increase your knowledge base, and those are good things in and of themselves. <7>



If improving your arguments is what you want to do, why don't you get started? Like answering my vindication of Classical Mathematics and its ability to understand logarithms, without changing the definition of number.

HGL

MicoMan2U wrote:

Good points. We can also be assured that if Hans really had a valid argument then it would have hit the front page of the paper. Currently there is no evidence to support deity and if there were it would certainly be the biggest news story ever.



Not in the Jewish/Masonic dominated press you read. In the history of learning it is old news. Only the textbooks claim that the proofs were later refuted - which is not the case. Because the refutations are sophistical rather than logic.

HGL

But I agree with VP that each new confrontation only serves to strengthen our ability to enlighten others to the reality of a secular existence, free from the chains of religious suppression.



Religious suppression! My foot! As for strengthening your ability, are you dreaming?

AbbyLeever wrote:


sorry about the html overrun.. fixed


AbbyLeever wrote:


VOP - I agree, it also serves to show other creationists that their position is not a homogeneous one - there is disagreement in the ranks. I accept Hans for what he is, and enjoy those discussions where I am not put through the brick wall.

Mico - also good points on the development argument.

Quark - it is easy to lose your temper with Hans - he is a "pre-enlightenment scholastic" and lives surrounded by (imho) brick walls that to him are reasonable limits on rational versus fantasy thoughts. The bit on numbers is 'enlightening', and the thoughts shared on the inquisition, to me, are disturbing but understandable. Read down through this [Classic Math] thread if you didn't read it before.




Thank you for beginning the thread with that nasty insult which is a total sideline to the issue like you keep cluttering up my threads with: like Inquisition and Galileo or modern medicine and surgery on a thread having to do with mathematics!

Doing a search on "pre-enlightenment scholastic" may help you understand. (a couple below, and I am sure Hans would provide more if asked): 1st link 2d link

Hans - my position is that there are things that we do not know, that what the reality is behind those things is outside our current ability to imagine, but that our inability to imagine it doesn't prevent it from being true or understandable at a future date.

The proper name for preferring that hogwash to the rational explanation that already does exist is obscurantism.HGL
Before the earth was found to be round it was logical to think it flat and unimaginable for some to even consider it being round - this did not prevent the roundness from occurring.
When was "before the earth was found to be round"? Certainly NOT in the Middle Ages, as they are called. The Church Fathers, Dante, St Thomas Aquinas and the rest of Medieval authority knew the earth was round. Bringing in the subject of Galileo being tried on account of believing it to move or Bruno being burnt for believing in pantheism has nothing whatever to do with the subject. And as for pre-classic antiquity, we have not read any logic defense of Babylonian flat earth cosmology - except by a Nestorian who misunderstood the Holy Scriptures, as heretics do.
Having a 'freethinkers' mind open enough to consider options on the universe allows me to consider the fascinating developments in evolution, archaeology, sub-atomic particles and universe inflation with the anticipation of finding new understandings of life, the universe and everything.
Being promiscuous and infertile in sex gives you a freedom of sweet imaginations - so does roaming and inconclusive thoughts in philosophic matters. I do not admire freethinkers more than wankers or profligates who use the condom. Sexual organs were made for procreation and imagination and reason for reaching conclusions.
HGL


valencequark wrote:

so now you are a conspiracy theorist too? why don't you pu tall of the energy that you waste whining about logarithms and international sceintific conspiracies into learning something worth learning?

-vq

If you call my observations on who dominates the so called free press conspiracy theories, you seem to be either part or victim of their conspiracy. Victim let's hope.

HGL

AbbyLeever wrote:

I will be happy to let anyone read the whole of that [Classical Math] thread, which was my point in referencing it. Here is the start:

http://boards.netscape.com/netscape/art_threaded.mbl?boardId=472202&artNum=94442&sort=pref&tsort=msgs&

a word of caution though - posts only last 1 month so review it soon.

If you change your Preferences, you can read older posts.

Quite a diatribe Hans. Let the facts fall where they may.Like that the flat earth belief was the dominant belief at one time - did I say medieval? no.

Neither did you present any other period when it was supposed to be dominant. Furthermore knowing that my Theology and Scholasticism are what you would call medieval, and you accusing me of being a flat earther, it would seem to be the most natural meaning of your words.

did you refute that it was at one time so? no.

Neither did you prove it or prove it had any point in relation to me and my creed.

Is this belief now proved wrong? yes, by both your and my acknowledgments.

Wrong? Yes. Once dominant or universal? ?

Does that validate my statement about it? Yes. Thank you.

The other point too, please. Do have the courtesy to go into details.

HGL

Voice of Principle comments on my dialogue with olblucat

...I have observed objects falling from heights and their destruction.
Practical experience says the destruction is greater as the starting point of the fall begins. The force of impact is much greater also.


You mean the destruction of falling objects is greater the higher the object falls from? I agree. Were did you find me stating the contrary? I have not denied that there is some sort of proportion between the physical work done in lifting an object, the kinetic energy (momentum) of it falling and the impact (new physical work) done when it smashes. I have stated a problem: between the lifting and the falling there is no entity internal to the object or otherwise per se actual that preserves this proportion.

====<1> Hans: Your error in understanding the nature of potential energy is due to the fact that you are looking only at the object. Potential energy involves an object + the gravitational field in which it finds itself. The distance of the object from the field's center of gravity + the distance over which the object will free fall determines the magnitude of the potential energy. <1>====


To VoP: NB will fall. Not something that is actually but something that will potentially. Which is basically what I am saying.
_____________________________




That means: potential energy is not a positive real entity, the conservation of energy is rather a theoretic conservation of figures on a paper than a conservation of any positive entity.

====<1> If that were the case, then perpetual motion machines would be possible and the world's energy problem would have been long since solved. <1>====


To VoP: how does that follow?
_______________________________



That means: physical energy cannot be the ultimate ground of existence, as it has been usually presented to the general public since it was discovered by Hiroshima that physical matter certainly wasn't.

====<1> An unfounded conclusion. <1>====


To VoP: the conservation of matter as ground of existence and energy as ground of movement independently of each other seems to have been disproven by Hiroshima bomb.


HGL


The reasons for an object losing it's energy in linear or angular momentum.

Again, as with the first part, I have observed many times this application in real time.

The above two have direct bearing on two of my own interests. Ballistics, both rockets and cannon shell, and aerodynamics as applied to both flying modelplanes and ground vehicles.

Now, I am confused as to what you believe controls all the various physical actions observed and studied and the results obtained.

If my interpretation of your beliefs are correct, then I can throw 100 years of testing and designing of airfoils out the window, as well as years of windtunnel testing.

This hasn't considered the same effects as applied to water craft such as the America Cup ship and sail designs.

You speak of theory, while I have to apply it.


Please, Oblucat. Would you do less interpretation of what I mean and what that would mean to ballistics and more of answering the points raised? Or was that the answer to my point: what proof is there that only air friction is responsible for any loss of momentum?

====<1> The proofs are many. Changing the shape of the arrow, particularly the arrow head, can improve or degrade flight distance in a mathemtically predictable fashion based on an analysis of aerodynamic factors. The same analysis can be applied to any object traveling through the atmosphere (using an appropriate data base describing the physical characteristics of the object).

Orbiting spacecraft outside the atmosphere experience virtually no frictional effects due to collisions with air molecules (the noteworthy exception being the solar wind), and therefore remain in orbit for centuries, millenia, or millions of years (duration depending on the mass of the craft and the nature of the chance atoms and molecules it encounters, space not being a perfect vacuum).

Perhaps the best example of air resistance was the recent tragedy involving the space shuttle Columbia. As the vehicle broke up and lost aerodynamic integrity, frictional forces created by its interaction with the upper atmosphere consumed so much energy that the pieces of the vehicle ended their flight hundreds of miles short of their destination, Cape Canaveral. <1>====


To VoP: you reason mostly as if rebutting the position that air friction were not a cause for loss of momentum. That is not my position. As for satellites outside atmosphere, the artificial ones have only been up a few decades, and the millennia of the others is begging the question: how do you, not explain, but prove that lack of air fricion and momentum preserved by such lack are the causes of that movement?

Hans Georg Lundahl

...on classical Greek mathematics, or logarithms for use on yardsticks

I wrote:


On a thread on geocentrism vs. heliocentrism, I and VoP differed on whether there are any NUMBERS other than NATURAL NUMBERS: whole numbers from one and potentially ad infinitum, not as if there were any infinite number, nor as if there were not any number that is really the greatest number in the universe, but because there is no particular arithmetic reason known to us why it should be the greatest, nor do we know how great it is: it is only actually greatest, while numerically there remains a potency to greater numbers, without limit.



I said nay, nothing else is numbers, fractions are ratios rather than numbers, pi and sqrt(2) are geometric incommensurable proportions rather than numbers or ratios, negative numbers are misnomers for natural numbers of "negative" or negated things, and I stick to it. However Voice of Principle challenged me on logarithms. According to my definition of numbers, he said logarithms would not exist.


In a sense, I do not think they do, but only in a sense. There is no arithmetical 10log of 2, because no potency of two exactly equals a potency of 10, just as there is no arithmetical sqrt(2), because 2 is not a sq #.


This said, I must go on to say that my classical Greek definition of numbers does not stop me from seeing what the 10log of 2 is, in so far as in any sense it is. Rather, I see it more clearly.


Even earlier, I had a hunch to figure out the 10logs anew, but in fractions expressed in duodecimal fractions rather than in decimals. But it is a pretty hard work to figure out the ninth root of ten (cubic root of cubic root) and put it in the fourth potency (square of square) just to get at the value for 10log : 4/9.

A few days ago, I started anew.


10 to 1/3 must be more than two, because 8 to 1/3 is two. 10 to 1/2 must be more than three, because 9 to 1/2 is three...


Before going into my preliminary results, a little terminology:
  • 1' (foot)=12" (inches)
  • 1"=12'" (lines)
  • 1'"=12 "" (points)
  • 1'=12"=144'"=1728""
The smallest unit points is not a current English unit, but the French pié du roi (1/6 of Charlemagne's body length) is subdivided ultimately into 1728 points du roi - analogically I speak of points as the 1728th part of any foot-measure.


The cube (3d potency) of ten (=1000) is less than the tenth potency of 2 (=1024). So 3:10 is less than the 10log of 2.
  • 144:10=14 2/5
  • 14 2/5*3=42 6/5=43 1/5
If 1=1', 43'"1/5 is the lower limit of 10log of 2.


Next line is of course 44'"=44:144=11:36. And the 11th potency of ten - 100,000,000,000 - is greater than the 36th potency of 2 - 68,719,426,736 - so 44'" is upper limit for 10log of 2 in the first approximation.


4 is the square of 2, and to find the 2d potency of a number, you multiply the logarithm with two, according to general rule that adding logarithms means multiplying corresponding numbers.


The 10log of four (=10log of 2*2) would thus be between 86'" and 88'". 87'" come in between. 87:144=29:48. Is that more or less than the 10log of 4?


More. Which means that as 88'" are reduced to 87'" as upper limit for 10log of 4, so the half must be reduced from 44'" to 43'" 6"" as upper limit for 10log of 2.


To get the 10log of 5, subtract 10log of 2 from 1 (=10log of 10). To get that of 25, add it to itself. To get that of 2.5 subtract 1' from 10log of 25. Add 10log of 5 and subtract another 1', and you have the 10log of 1.25 - and when it comes to the 10log of 3 I jumped straight onto the 10log of 9: 1020 is less than 921, but 1021 is more than 922. So the 10log of 9 must be between 20:21 and 21:22. If it is expressed in duodecimals it is easier to halve to get the 10log of 3.




My results so far:

10log of 2
> 0' 3" 7'" 2""
< 0' 3" 7'" 6""



10log of 4
> 0' 7" 2'"
< 0' 7" 3'"


10log of 8
129 - 131'"


10log of 5
> 0' 8" 4'" 6""
< 0' 8" 5'"

of 25
> 1' 4" 9'"
< 1' 4" 10'"


of 1.25
> 0' 1" 1'"
< 0' 1" 3'"


10log of 9
> 0' 11" 5'" 1""5/7
< 0' 11" 5'" 5""5/11



and of 3
> 0' 5" 8'" 6""6/7
< 0' 5" 8'" 8""8/11

Always presuming that 1=1'.


Now, if VoP would pls check the accuracy of my most accurate logarithms (2, 3, 4, 5, 9), he may see for himself whether my clinging to Classic maths has stopped me from understanding logarithms!


Now for a theoretical definition:

  • a logarithm is not a number, but EITHER a ratio between the (whole number!) potencies of two numbers, the base and the number whose logarithm it is, so that
  • if basea=numberb
  • then the logarithm is a:b
  • OR a geometric irrational proportion that can only be approximated to above
  • and furthermore expressed in either case as fractions of an arbitrary length unit, so as to compare with real or virtual counting slides (is that what you call them?) the potencies of numbers, so that multiplication of numbers can by succesful fiction be expressed as addition of potencies and divison by subtraction, potencies by multiplication, roots by division.


No need to dub logarithms numbers in order to understand them, then!

Hans Georg Lundahl

Continued:The fact that there is no such a thing as a 10log of two is also proven by the fact, that the closer approximations to its value - the LESS they have of the definition of logarithm, i e ratio between exponents of EQUAL potencies.

In order to prove this, consider that 87:288=29:96 is a closer upper limit than 44:144=88:288=11:36.

Now, will the potencies 1029 and 296 be more or less equal to each other, than 1011 and 236?

Two96 is
79,228 quadrillions
162,514 trillions
55,647 billions
658,951 millions
950,336,

which is more than 20 quadrillions off the 100,000 quadrllions that form the potency 1029.

Clearly this difference is greater than not just the difference between 1011 and 236, but even greater than any of the number involved in that real inequality and nearest possible equality.

Oh, yes - when I had taken the sweet trouble (like a crosswordpuzzle) of calculating 296 in a few grid systems, I found it quite as worthwile to go up a few potencies of two by doubling.

31:103 is a closer lower limit (closer than 3:10), because
10 quintillions
141,204 quadrillions
801,799 trillions
122,900 billions
345,849 millions
643,008

is greater than 10 quintillions.And the upper limit can be drawn down to 32:106.

The new approximations are:
0' 3" 7'" 4""8/103
0' 3" 7'" 5""35/53

Which I found out in proving that what is thus approximated can be infinitely approximated and never reached because it doesn't exist.
HGL

Résumé of mathematic debates with Voice Of Principle:

  • a) He attacks my argument against the regress to infinity "infinity cannot be passed through" as having been refuted by modern mathematical understanding of infinity, also he attacks my logic on logic thread by claiming there is reason that goes counter to logic and is still true
  • b) I answer that every number is finite, a multiple of one, and that every number is rational
  • c) He counters with saying that Greek math's thought so, but PI and sqrt/2, being irrational, disprove this
  • d) I answer that I know very well that PI and "sqrt/2" are irrational, it is the number part of their categorisation I disagree with, since they aren't numbers but size relations
  • e) message disappears
  • f) when I repeat the point, VoP claims my limited understanding of number cuts me off from understanding the great new "discoveries" of math's since Newton
  • g) On a thread on geocentrism/heliocentrism, Rita claims the main argument for heliocentrism is that Copernican hypothesis of Universe makes accurate calculations of planetary movements possible
  • h) I counter saying that mathematic fictions can make calculations easier without being true to mathematic realities and give as example the fictitious negative rule of squares (a - b)sq = asq - 2ab + bsq, proving this is geometrical nonsense if taken to the letter, step by step, as contrasted with real rule (a - b)sq = asq - bsq - 2b(a - b), which is true to geometry, involves no supposition of negative numbers existing, but is less handy
  • i) VoP claims I misrepresent algebra and claims it doesn't involve any fiction, repeating that my limited understanding of mathematics cuts me off from many great discoveries
  • j) I disprove both his points by this thread, calculating the 10logarithms of 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9, 25 and 1.25, especially refining the logarithm of 2, while saying that it is not a number and what it really is: a relation, and, since exponents must be whole numbers, a fictitious relation between exponents of 10 and 2 when their powers equal - which Eratesthenes has proved they never do. To substantiate my claim of calculating the log of 2, I show my calculations in part and give the values in duodecimal fractions, corresponding best both to my old dream of making counting slides on a yardstick and to my calculations - and leave it to VoP to convert the duodecimals into decimals to check my accuracy
  • k) VoP does not answer, but AbbyLeever, who has not followed my debates does, repeating VoP's misundestanding of my arguments.If he had been a zen buddhist, I think he might have understood my mathematics better - not that that would have saved his soul of course, but it would have been more stimulating on this board.

Hans Georg Lundahl

Tuesday, November 25, 2008

AT LONG LAST, VOP!

You came along just as I was being exasperated. And yes, you are right, that as far as the UNDERSTANDING of modern things is concerned, I am a pre-Enlightenment scholastic, a thomist who would out-thomist Maritain, as it were.

You are right that "the devil" if that is what you like to call it, is in the definition.

The thing is, a few months ago, you saw that I stuck to another definition of number, the old one, and challenged me that it hampered me in understanding inter alia logarithms (not to mention "integral calculus" which has hardly anything beyond the name in common with calculi and the numeri they count). My first message on this thread was my answer to that precise challenge. And I expressed the values in inches lines points

  • - because that way I was neither helped nor hampered by knowing that 10log of 2 is approx 0.301

  • - because it stressed that fractions to me are not numbers, that are expressed in exponents of 10, but values of some continous greatness, like length, which is measured in duodecimal fractions on the scale relevant for a counting stick, in the old system

  • - because I like the old system more than the sham scientific, pseudoexact metre system: in continuous quantity the unit is arbitrary and the measure of all things is (6') a man

  • - because the duodecimal fractions are great for expressing the Fibonacci numbers 89, 144, 233, 377: count as many lines('") and you have good approximations of golden ratio on a handy scale.

Another clarification: when it comes to the RIGHTFUL USE of modern technology, I am ethically a Luddite. If you use the flying shuttle or Spinning Jenny for your amusement or strictly domestic needs of textile - go ahead. If you use them in Wars, when weavers take up arms, or catastrophes, when blankets and clothes and bandage linen must be quickly produced without economic profit - better still. But if you employ them to replace workers in ordinary, peacetime, commercial production, and to compete others who refuse to do so out of business - smashing is what they deserve. That is why I claim to be proud to be a Luddite.

Hans Georg Lundahl

VoiceOfPrinciple wrote:


<1> Hans, I have done little reading and even less posting on this board for the least several weeks due to an acute lack of time. By chance I noticed this particular thread last night and read all of its posts. AbbyLeever has done a fine job replying to various points you have raised, so I am going to content myself with a few general observations, rather than repeat her effort to no practical effect.

The devil, as it were, is in the definition. You have defined a number to be a positive mathematical value with a zero fractional part (that is, an integer). Both I and AL would define a number as a mathematical value. Period. A mathematical value is something which can be transformed by a mathematical process such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, exponentiation, etc. This is the heart of the difference between your conception of a number and those of modern mathematicians.

Having said that, it is far more interesting to ask why you define a number as you do. Some others on this board refer to you as a Luddite. This is both imprecise and misleading. You are in fact a pre-Enlightenment Scholastic. I suspect you regard the Enlightenment as a great misfortune for Western Civilization, since it called into doubt fundamental religious doctrines which you hold near and dear. Anything associated with, or derived from, the Enlightenment (such as modern mathematics) is to you suspect. Hence your insistence on using an historically interesting, but limited, view of the mathematical realm.

I cannot help but close out this post by pointing out a certain irony that may have eluded you. Modern mathematics, at least through the middle years of the 20th century, is almost exclusively a product of Western Civilization. Many of its greatest contributors were practicing Christians. Classical mathematics, to which you are committed, on the other hand, was developed by a pre-christian culture composed of Pagans. It's not just politics that makes strange bedfellows. <1>



AbbyLeever wrote:

Are you done? I believe I am vindicated by VOR in spite of your bombastic retoric to the contrary.
It has been a good laugh.
Do you know how a ship leaves harbor? It raises it's anchor.

--



Vindicated from misunderstanding? NO way. VOP knew from previous encounters how I define numbers, but you should have grasped it instead of accusing me the third time of doing what I didn't. All the while ignoring what I did, although I had said so on the very first post: vindicated the old definitions against VOP's claim they exclude me from knowledge of logarithms. And though he hasn't said so, his silence eloquently tells me he cannot keep that charge up. Holding logarithms to be not at all numbers, but ideally ratios of exponents, when powers of base equal powers of the antilogarithm, most often approximations to that, there being no equal powers, I have given an accurate value for 10log of 2, in duodecimals, my final approximation being 0' 3" 7'" 4"", giving account for my way to it and thereby showing I have not just plagiarised the known value 0.301 - to which it "incidentally" approximates on the lower edge. How did I do it, unless I understand logarithms? How do I understand logarithms, if holding to the old definitions of number, size, relations rational or otherwise as different things rather than lumping all together as "numbers" stop a man from understanding logarithms? Actually, before I thoroughly got the ancient idea into my head, that number means integer, and therefore that everything counted rather than measured, including exponentiation, must be whole numbered, I could not make proper calcualtions of logarithms. Now I know they cannot be in the full sense calculated, I can make them with sufficient accuracy. For the value given for 10log of two, the errors, where powers of two would coincide with powers of ten (which of course they cannot, which is the reason why 2 has no real logarithm) will occur when the counting slides extend to about ten yards: a tolerable error for a one yard pair of counting slides, I'd say.

Hans Georg Lundahl



AbbyLeever wrote:

I am thinking of a number that can be approximated by the number 5
It can also be approximated by taking any number in existence and finding the number that is 1/2 way between it and the number 5. The more you do this the closer the approximation comes.
What number am I thinking of?


A - if it can only be approximated, it is not a number, but a size relation, rational or not.
B - Do you actually mean that the greater numbers you take and get the half distance between it and five, the better the approximation? Or that you call that half distance a number and halve the distance again and again and again? Or that you average the half distances without repeating the halving?
But most important of all: how do you know that you have really taken EVERY number in existance into account? Obviously you cannot.
C - If you are thinking of 5, which you cannot unless the halving is continually repeated, why approximate what you can have exactly?
D - if the halving of the distance is to be done on a surface with some kind of graphs, it would be a mathematical size or size relation - and hence not necessarily a number nor an arithmetic thing (most assuredly not if it can be only approximated), but rather a geometric thing.
E - would that be "e" that you are thinking of? I have run into a description of it beginning with two, continuing with a + followed by a fraction of which the denominator (I think it is) also contains a + followed by a fraction, of which... why take the trouble to find that approximation, when one can just as well find approximates of 10logs for prime numbers by comparing exponents of base and antilogarithm? Admittedly the 10log of 7 is right now wavering somewhere between 121 and 122'", but I am hoping to get to powers where stricter narrowings may be made by ratio of exponents.

AbbyLeever wrote:
(a) I will let pass for now
(b) in an approximation iteration you take the result of the previous step and feed it inot the algorithm to produce the next result (or don't you do that either) so it is your second statement (and yes you can start with any number)
(c) no guesses, I want your mathmatical answer
(d) the halving is mathmatical, just like every one of your precious fractions
(e) no, keep trying...
H G Lundahl wrote:
[[Starting with ten I get: 8 1/2, 6 3/4, 5 7/8 and it would seem that the lower limit for any number higher than five, higher limit for any number lower than five but a limit never exactly reached would be: five.
This brings me back to my objection:
C - If you are thinking of 5, which you cannot unless the halving is continually repeated, why approximate what you can have exactly?

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever wrote:
isn't it obvious?

AbbyLeever wrote:

Hans - are you back yet?

H G Lundahl wrote:
I am back NOW. Yesterday and the day before, I've had other things to do, and it would seem you have had a really fun time these two days.

None of you noticed a mistake in mathematics I did make, though.

No, it isn't obvious. Unless you were thinking of calling these fractions numbers, it is not to the point of our debate. And though I did make the mistake of ending up in 5 & 7/8 rather than 5 & 5/8 in these steps, I certainly did NOT make the mistake of calling 5 & 5/8 a NUMBER in the full and proper sense of the word.

Five is a number, so is six, and as it is the next number, there are no numbers between them. As 5 & 5/8 is between them, it cannot be a number, nor are 5 and 10 IN THIS CONTEXT, rather it is a question of ratios, though it is till only a question of NUMERIC ratios, common to number and size. 5 & 5/8 is, properly speaking, the ratio 45:8 - above 40:8=5:1, but below 48:8=6:1. A ratio is not a number, unless it has 1 for denominator.

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever wrote:

5 is a number
the number 5 is approximated by the series I gave you, but is never reached
the fact that the number is never reached by the approximation is not proof that the number 5 exists, as because of the first statement we agree that it exists
therefor any approximation of a number that does not give a final answer for a number is NOT a proof that the number does not exist
your proof of the existence or non-existence of pi is invalid (note - not proven false, just proven invalid)
and as for the non-existence of numbers between 5 and 6, I just have another set of numbers that are worth twice the original numbers and in it's series then number 11 falls half way between your 5 and 6, exists and is real. It corresponds exactly to 5 and a half, so therefore 5 and a half also exists and is a real number. glad to have you back, and hope you had a good couple of days.
(I just assumed a typo, and it isn't really critical to the argument, like criticising
spelling and grammer is irrelevant to the discussions)

H G Lundahl wrote:

5 is a number in its primary sense - and in that sense the next number is 6, no number coming between.

5 1/2 is certainly a reality, but not a real (meaning true, no issue about whether it belongs to what modern mathematics mistakenly calls "real numbers" being intended) NUMBER in the primary sense of the word.

As you said yourself: its simplest value is 11. Now 11 is not 5 1/2, but rather 5 1/2 * 2. and there is 5 1/2 * 4 = 22. and 5 1/2 * 6 = 33, and so on.

Where 5 1/2 is simply 5 1/2 it is not a number, but a measure, each measure being not a unity in the full sense of the word, but a unity that changes name but not nature by being divided: pizzas, pints of ale, feet and miles, days and years all spring to mind. But there you are not dealing with a number of totally separate items (which is the prerequisite for speaking of number in the full arithmetical sense of the word) but rather of things that in themselves are undivided or accidentally divided: food, drink, size in space, duration in time et c.

When we are speaking of anything that can in the proper sense be called number, namely a number of fully countable things - stones that retain the name or animals or men that change the nature if cut in two - there is no such thing properly speaking as 5 1/2, only 5 1/2 * something else, that else being invariably a multiple of 2 or simply 2.

"5 1/2 *" is not a number: it is a numeric ratio, aka 11:2, which remains identical if the numbers involved are changed in equal proportions: 22:4, 33:6, 44:8 et c. As you will see: every number has a corresponding numeric ratio, but not the other way around. And every numeric ratio can be a size proportion, but some size proportions have no corresponding numeric ratio, because the sizes are incommensurable: whatever arbitrary unit be chosen for measuring exactly one size will be too big or small in any multiple or rational fraction to fit the other: among which you will admit is "sqrt/2" aka diagonal:side of a square, PI, which is short for perimetre:diametre, et c.

Are you finally getting my meaning? Or do you still consider the ancients wrong in saying that every number is a ratio? Or will you after my computation (not calculation in the full sense, since that is only of numbers) of 10log of 2 insist that, although the Greeks were right about it in their definition, they would not get the impressive arts - such as logarithms - of modern maths except by changing the definitions? It was this third point which the thread was all about, after VOP had previously conceded that, according to the ancient definition, PI and sqrt/2 are no numbers.

Hans Georg Lundahl

AbbyLeever wrote:

What I see is that you make a distinction that for me is totally unnecessary and serves no purpose. It is like arguing that there is only one blue color, when the color can be anywhere on an infinitely variable spectrum.

Consider the dividing of a pizza into pieces as separating the molecules into different groups with each molecule whole and accounted for. And then when I have divided it up into individual molecules, I divide it further into groups of atoms each atom whole and accounted for. And then when I have divided it up into individual atoms, I divide it further into groups of particles each particle whole and accounted for. And then when I have divided it up into individual particles, I divide it further into groups of sub-atomic particles each sub-atomic particle whole and accounted for. And now I am in a fine little problem because the sub-atomic particles are constantly changing, becoming different particles or becoming multiple particles or becoming no particles and so on - there is no "1" there is a vibration around the number "1" that is a probability of being "1" but not a necessity.

Ultimately there is no "1" there is a cloud of possible numbers, that could even be 1.5 if caught in the act of changing from "1" to "2".

Except of course that you will not agree with the modern physics portrayal of matter composition, either.

What I see is that "we are limited in our understanding of the universe by our understanding of the universe" - and your understanding is different from mine. For me your mathematics is a subset of mine, while for you my mathematics includes a fantasy outside yours.

H G Lundahl wrote:

My distinction between number and size - namely number being many as opposed to one, something to which one at a time can always be added from the outside, as far as the arithmetic nature of the number is concerned, discrete quantity; and sizes, weights, other measures being rather continuous quantity, infinitely divisible because any division is already potentially inherent in the thing itself, and furthermore my distinction between them as such - the category of quantity - and their relations, the category of relation, to which belong ratios, pi, sqrt/2, logarithms, but also the most straightforward arithmetic relations, like add or subtract five (same relation seen from the two numeric termini) or neither add nor subtract, is part and parcel of scholastic, Aristotelic, common sense understabding of the Universe.

So far you're right. But what subsets of your mathematics does mine lack? Not logarithms on my showing!

HGL

AbbyLeever wrote:

pi, e, the square roots of all numbers, decimals, fractions, the square roots of negative numbers ... just to name a few are included in my mathematics as numbers.

one could argue that pi is what it is because God wanted us to think and not make it easy. at one level all things in the universe are illusion and what we perceive as reality is based on ideas we have not on hard evidence - is the reality of a cup that you just put down still a cup or the image of a cup?
peace.
My answer, so far:

Abby Leever:
Why do you keep repeating the charge that I were regarding pi, "sqrt/2" or of any other number that isn't a sq#, logarithms as illusions? I do not: if they are false numbers they are real size relations of the proportionally constant sort. Just as a false Hector is a real actor (excuse the pun), or more properly as what is for Baudelaire a false musical tone - green - is a real optic colour!

You say I call only a small section of the spectrum of numbers numbers. Not so: I am not limiting colour to only blue, I am excluding C major from colour!

There is for every number except the one that is the greatset, a corresponding arithmetic relation of so many units greater or smaller like for 5 the relations 5 more than or less than, and for every number including the greatest a corresponding relation of the sort called geometric, though it exists already in arithmetic multiplication and division, namely a ratio: like for 5 the ratio 5:1, five times as many as, which has an obverse, 1:5, a fifth as many as.

Note that 4 is 1 more than 3 says exactly the same as 3 is 1 less than 4. Plus and minus are not indeed the same side of the same relation, but the two opposite sides of it, aka equal and opposite relations.

Equally, 10 is 5 times 2 says the same thing as 2 is a 5th of 10. 5* and /5 are equal and opposite proportional relations, aka two sides of the same relation.

Each numeric ratio has ipso facto a corresponding musical ratio, an interval, but there are intervals that are not in the relation of number to unit, like 1:2 or 2:1, a pure octave, or 1:3 or 3:1, a twelfth, but also number to number ratios, like 2:3, a great (pure) fifth, 3:4 a small (pure)fourth, that do not correspond to any one number or any one arithmetic operation, but rather to two at a time, and confusing numbers with ratios is as bad as confusing pitch with interval.

Furthermore each musical ratio has a corresponding size ratio: just as there is 2:3 the pitch or string length (on a monochord), there is 2:3 the size, like length or surface or volume. But there are also proportions that fall between any two ratios and, a fortiori, between any two numbers. Like pi, "sqrts" of nonsq#, golden ratio, possibly e, certainly logarithms, et c. I am not at all denying that what you call real numbers - NB above zero - are real: I am, repeatedly, saying they do not belong to the category of number but to another category which only in part corresponds to it and also has a part not so corresponding: which is why geometry is a greater science than arithmetic.

As for zero, it is not a number: plus minus zero is a name for an arithmetic relation of numeric identity, as far as addition and subtraction are concerned, just as 1* and /1 is the name for that relation of numeric or size identity, as far as proportion is concerned: in usual terms it is called as many as or as great as. In music it is called the pure first, the same pitch. And as for negatives, the negativity resides not in the number, but in the numeric relation, in what direction it is seen from: which disposes of the pretention of there being "numbers smaller than zero" or of them having any roots, whether sq or cb or bisq or other.

There is thus no number line stretching from negative infinity to positive infinity, which disposes of the objection against any proof of God's existence, that is based on the impossibility of the regress into infinity. And no number surface, except in graphs and in Gauss' imagination. And no numeric infinity, which makes it impossible to identify the Infinity of God with any attribute of the manyfold. And defending these common sense proofs of God's existence and transcendence is the whole point of my issue against modern math's - as well as that the confused terminology and the unceasing appeals to broaden ones imagination employed by math's teachers to defend it, make gifted mathematicians fail by failing to understand the explanations as stated. Not that I was a victim - or I hadn't been able to sort this out, perhaps.

Hans Georg Lundahl

lighting up dialogue with myshkin and finishing it with AbbyLeever

myshkin08 wrote:

wow ... i am saving this.


thank you


AbbyLeever wrote:

again - it is useful information form music.
repeat: for me p is a beautiful number.

H G Lundahl wrote: I have sometimes seen two men together or three or four - but never pi men or e men. Same goes for animals or plants. And actually for minerals too, since even if you divide them, you do not get fractions of them, but the divided parts count as new wholes. What IS it that can be numbered by pi? Measures? Certainly they can be related by pi, but measure is not concerned with number, rather with sizes in unitary things. Pi does not answer the question "how many?" but rather the question "how much more than?" in a proportional matter. It is and remains a size relation, not a number.


Hans Georg Lundahl


myshkin08 wrote:

I begin to understand...
:~)


litt962 wrote:

I wish I did...;(

...


H G Lundahl wrote: "Omnia disposuisti numero pondere et mensura."


The Psalmist praises God for having disposed everything in number weight and measure. If modern mathematics were right in saying weight and measure are simply numbers, it would go "in number, number and number" - which is ridiculous. A half isn't a number, it's a size relation if you mean half as big, a weight relation if you mean half as heavy (and that's the most likely place for half a loaf, though it would be half as big as well) and a number relation if you mean half as many: which may mean any number, as long as you are comparing it to the number twice itself. Whatever can be counted for the sake of counting, and not just as an alternative to weighing or measuring, is counted as wholes and therefore in whole numbers - and that's what the Greeks and any sensible man first and foremost means by number, and that's why pi cannot count as a number. But I've never denied it's beautiful.


Hans Georg Lundahl


myshkin08 wrote:

Thank you Hans.I do not understand all of the math involved, but the Greeks were reasonable were they not?And the psalmist was right to praise God as well...


H G Lundahl wrote: The psalmist certainly was right, as he was inspired by the Holy Ghost.


And the Greeks were reasonable - like reasonable enough to know that size and number are two different kinds of quantity, that some relations can be taken over from number relations to size relations, but some size relations obviously cannot be reduced to number relations. The number relation 3 10/70 (22:7) they knew to be greater than pi, the number relation 3 10/71 to be smaller than pi. They didn't bother about standardising fractions to decimal fractions, but if you work it out you will see that both are just a little above 3.14 but way low below 3.15.

  • 3.140845=3 10/71 ancient lower limit approx
  • 3.14159.pi, modern five decimal accurate approximation
  • 3.142856=3 10/70 anc. higher limit approx


Whatever fraction you use, it will be higher or lower.


Hans Georg Lundahl


myshkin08 wrote:

Hans,
If the Greeks were so reasonable so long ago, in their understanding of things, what do you supposed has happened to propigate so much ignorance, or rather, semantics, in the generations after them?
Enlightenment? (so called)


My answer - so far:


Newton.


According to a source cited in writings of Lyndon La Rouche, he seems to have been an occultist. CSL noted, although he didn't go as far as calling the first modern scientists magicians, that science (in the modern sense) and magic were born in the same area and time, more or less. Bacon of Verulam ("scientist", though he made no discoveries) and Pico della Mirandola (definitely magician, whether in practise or only in theory) shared the same goals. Only the methods differred. If the source "Discovering Newton" is correct, Newton went from one method to another.


Newton made mathematics - irrespective of whether he meant arithmetic or geometry - the new foundation of science and he remodelled the definitions of mathematics (if Voice Of Principle is correct) changing even the definition of number, it seems. Perhaps he was tainted by magic experience of numerology? Perhaps he thought equations done with algebraic fictions wouldn't work unless he called the fictions facts? As a matter of fact they do. There is no need whatsoever to call zero, negatives, irrational size relations numbers to understand them or deal with them. But in magic (remember the Pythagoreans were reputedly magicians) it is thought vital to touch the essence of the matter, and essence is thought to reside in, amongst other things, number. So, if science was to reach the goal of changing human conditions, of making its practitioners the high and mighty benefactors of mankind, it might have been thought vital to call as many things as possible number and as few things as possible - ideally none - fictions. That's when one starts calling pi a number rather than a size relation and 0 a number rather than a fiction and -3 a "number lower than zero" rather than a relation between numbers, showing by how many (3) one number is lower than another (-).


Hans Georg Lundahl



AbbyLeever wrote:


pi, e, the square roots of all numbers, decimals, fractions, the square roots of negative numbers ... just to name a few are included in my mathematics as numbers. ...


Were you just calling e a number? Make a coordinate system. Plot a curve getting above horizon in x=1, which everywhere has the direction coordinates 1:x and therefore in this point the angle 45 dgr, but which changes angle at every point getting flatter and flatter. Now where y=1, x=e. Add the y for x=3 (where direction coordinate is 1:3) to the y for x=4, you will get the y for x=12. That is what natural logarithms are. Are we agreed so far? Good. We were using the words coordinate system, curve, angle - are these arithmetic things or geometric? Are these numbers or figures, dimensions? In my mathematics they are figures (curve) and dimensions (y=height, x=length). Is e:1 a number proportion or a size proportion? In my mathematics it is obviously a size proportion.

Was I saying earlier on that e is no number? Yes. Was I saying it was no size or size relation either? No. Was I saying that a logarithm, having no arithmetic existence nevertheless has a geometric existence? Yes. Was I right on all these points? Yes, thank you.

HGL
Continued:

one could argue that pi is what it is because God wanted us to think and not make it easy.


Pi is no difficult: it is the size relation between perimetre (circumference) and diametre of a circle. It is greater than a 3:1 relation, and than a relation of 223:71, but smaller than a 22:7 relation, greater than 31,415:10,000, smaller than 31,416:10,000. And so on. It is greater or smaller than any given ratio, any given number to number relation. It is irrational and a size relation without any real correspondence in arithmetic.

HGL

at one level all things in the universe are illusion and what we perceive as reality is based on ideas we have not on hard evidence - is the reality of a cup that you just put down still a cup or the image of a cup?


Your believing that is one of the bad things that come with believing all sizes to be numbers, all size relations to be numeric relations or even all relations of whatever quantity to be numbers.

HGL

peace.


If believing all is illusion gives your mind quiet, it is not the soundest mind. True peace has nothing to do with illusion or believing truth to be such.

HGL

Thursday, November 20, 2008

... on Independent existence

Collected arguments in logical order.

RocketmanAllen wrote:


"Who or what created the creator. The creator simply came from non-existance ot existance or was simply always there?

"You can't apply the something must have created the universe for it to exist without that question coming around."


Objection overruled!

There is a distinction between what needs something else in order to exist and that which exists in its own right.

Everything needing something else to exist needs either something else that also needs something else to exist or it needs that which exists in its own right. Since nothing can depend on an infinite number of conditions for its existence(See footnote.)this brings us back to that which exists in its own right - and by definition, THAT does not need any Creator. But it may very well be the Creator - and actually is, as may be proven from another argument.

Hans Georg Lundahl


Footnote to Voice of Principle: the infinite is by definition what cannot be transcrossed. An infinite distance is a distance noone can pass through and an infinite number of conditions is one that never can be fulfilled. That is why the regress into the infinite is impossible.

Your definition of infinite is too limited. Consider an infinite convergent series. It is both infinite and fulfilled.


Infinite series are not actual infinities, only potential ones. Not that they have the potency actually to reach the infinite, but that there is no finite limit to their potency to go on. I am taking this to the Independent Existence thread, which is a spin-off from this. HGL


Your definition of the infinite implies that an infinite number of conditions must be processed serially. Why should this be a requirement? Suppose I have an infinite number of conditions designated condition 1, condition 2, condition 3, etc. Suppose all odd numbered conditions occur first and occur simultaneously. Suppose further that once the odd numbered conditions have occurred that the even numbered conditions will then occur, again all simultaneously. Under these condtions, an infinite number of conditions can be satisfied in a finite number of steps. Comments?




Yes. Accomplishing an infinite number of conditions simultaneously does not alter the nature of one condition depending on another. You claim an infinite number of steps could be made in a finite number of moments. It would be even clearer if we were arguing the 1st way, proof of unmoved mover.

The hit depends on the hammer in motion, the hammer in motion on the hand in motion, the hand on the arm, the arm on the will. Period. Only in further analysis we may see that the smith is not an unmoved mover in the full sense. But he is an example of what unmoved mover means in the process of hammering. Obviously the simultaneous conditions for the hammer hit cannot be infinite. Infinity is not to be transcrossed, a travel through infinity - whether temporal and successive or non-temporal and simultaneous - means never arriving.

Same goes for same reason for conditions of causation or - as we are discussing here - being, existence.

Hans Georg Lundahl


RocketmanAllen wrote:


"Somebody finally got it! (without realizing it). Neither can be proven to exist with or without the other.

"You caught yourself with your own argument.

"Creationists want to state that existance of anything cannot occur without a creator."


Not so - another misquoted argument.

The existence of anything DEPENDING ON SOMETHING ELSE FOR EXISTENCE cannot occur without the existence of that something else. There is a difference between "the existence of anything" and "the existence of anything DEPENDING ON SOMETHING ELSE FOR EXISTENCE" - see. You made a confusion between simpliciter and secundum quid - which is a sophism.

Hans Georg Lundahl


zoombwaz wrote:
"But who defines that which can exist on its own right, and that which must be created? You? Who is to say the universe doesn't exist in its own right? Your logic is faulty, as you assume the universse must be created, in order to prove the existence of a creator. It is in fact circular, and an unsupported premise to boot."


What is clearly dependent on something else for existence needs an ultimate necessarily existent ground for its existence, as proven. The question whether that ultimate ground is the creator is another one, the answer to which is NOT presupposed as necessary proof in the argument above, which is why my argument is NOT a circle in demonstration.

As to your question: existing in its own right means existing without depending on any other thing for it. It is an existance that cannot vary with the condition of other things. Hence everything the existence of which is demonstrably varied - like coming to exist or ceasing to exist - is ruled out from existing in its own right. This was proved already by the eleatic philosophers, who were NOT Christians.

Hans Georg Lundahl

Thursday, November 13, 2008

...on Knowledge

I distinguish three things:

1 Ego scio - I know - means primarily I know this to be self-evident or at leastmediately demonstrable knowledge of my own reason or senses: I know that I sithere, I know that I am writing and what the words that I write mean, et c. "Iknow" means in this sense "I am making a statement, the truth of which I candemonstrate." At least to my own satisfaction. In this sense I know thatevolution is sham - and I think (see below) - I would retain that knowledge,even if I didn't believe the Genesis. On the other hand - knowing this, whatreason is there for not believing it?

2 It is also used in a broader sense to include certain belief in an authoritywhich is a true authority, an authority stating things as they are, not as theyare not: I know Magellan's ship has sailed around the world, I know that Lutherfaked translation passages in the Bible, I know that Mary Queen of Scots wasbeheaded after a sham trial by Usurpatrix Bess Bullen (or Boleyn, if youinsist), I know that Christ has risen, founded a Church, endowed it withinfallibility and - in the person of the New Testament writers - verbalinspiration, hence I know the eternal truths. In this sense the truths testifiedby God are of course more certain than those testified by mere men and deservethe epithet of knowledge more, not less.Knowing for certain by authority of someone else is also called ego credo - Ibelieve (in the old English sense of the word). This is especially used in thereligious sense, where I am not equal but infinitely inferior to the One whoknows by his own eternal wisdom and omniscience and on whose authority I believeit.

3 This must NOT be confused with ego opinor - I think, methinks. Unlike own knowing and belief giving access to God's, opining has no certainty.


Hans Georg Lundahl

Here are some battles between me and Voice of Principle [on] A and B on basic concept of knowledge by authority.

A I cannot verify it - this or that historical event, Resurrection of Christ or battle of Waterloo - but the original witnesses could.


====> The total body of evidence allows you to verify a great deal of it. The evidence of the witnesses is not a proclamation to be unconditionally accepted (they may be liars), but additional factual data to be integrated with thephysical and consequential evidence. <====


A witness may be a liar or mistaken. But there are certain things that go withbeing either and certain things that are inconsistent with either. A witness who is obviously not to be suspected of lying (no possible motive, even motives forthe opposite lie) or of being mistaken (his story shows he knows unless he islying) should be believed.


======> A person can be completely honest and as accurate in reporting as his world view permits, and still give a completely false account of the actual events. Imagine a nomad wandering in the Sinai 3000 years ago. He sees a bright object fall out of the sky and impact the earth, throwing up a great deal of matter and flame. Curiosity overcoming fear, he advances to investigate. As he approaches, he sees figures in strange garb moving about. Drawing nearer, he is shocked to see that they are wearing flexible metal garments with large glass headcoverings. Through the glass he sees that their skin is greenish in color and they have what look like horns on their heads. One of them turns toward him and he is blinded by an intense light that shines out from the creature's belt. He flees in terror. When he returns to his village he tells his friends and neighbors of the Hand of God casting out demons and banishing them from heaven. He tells of the horror of their visage and the great power of their hideous evil eye, which can rob a man of his sight. His observations are recorded in a holy book. Millenia later, in a more skeptical age, his account is used to describe the dangers of dehydration in desert environments. Had our wanderer given a scientific account, describing exactly what he had seen, without the religious overlay, his story might be interpreted as a possible first contact between human and extraterrestrial intelligence. A fable? Farfetched?

Consider: When Cortez lead a Spanish force in the exploration/conquest of Mexico, he brought about the collapse of the Aztec Empire. How could a few hundred Spaniards accomplish such a feat? The Aztecs psychologically defeated themselves. Terrifying accounts of the power of the newcomers were relayed to the Aztec king Montezuma. He was told that the visitors/invaders could destroy the tops of great mountains; kill thousands of warriors at a distance by means of great sorcery, etc. In the end, these tales unmanned Montezuma and he surrendered without a fight: because his "authorities" reported what they had seen as honestly as they could, but colored by their world view, which unfortunately for them contained no knowledge of explosives or gunpowder. The result: no more Aztec Empire. <======



That amounts in the one case to mistaken witness - not to be believed - on the other hand to lies - not to be believed either. Accepting authority means accepting both knowledge and honesty of the authority. What you are aiming at is called jurare in verba magistri - which is not allowed when the master inquestion is a mere human, whose conclusions I can criticise with my own reason.


Furthermore: are you actually a historian or an archeologist? If you are an historian, you will accept the authority of the archeologist on what he actually found - unless you were present at the excavation. If you are an archeologistyou may have a prejudice against the written sources that are authority for the historian, but you will accept his authority for what is in the written sources- unless you can read them yourself.


B So is believing a scientist about an experiment I cannot verify for myself:


like the Rutherford experiment or the experiments of Pasteur. Furthermore I do believe that the Copernican HYPOTHESIS as refined by Brahe and Kepler can make true predictions about planetary movements. I cannot verify it, but the scientists can.


====> The point is that scientific data can be verified and it is accepted on that basis: its verifiability. It is never to be accepted based solely on the position, stature, or reputation of the scientist. <====



Thank you for that point. Have any clear preponderance of evidence in favour of "Copernicanism" taken as a theory, a statement of the facts? Or are you believing heliocentrism on the reputation of its proponents?As to the actual Rutherford experiment, you are accepting it on the evidence ofthose who are in aposition to check it. On authority. Everyone who lacks the apparatus or skill for making the Rutherford experiment, accepts it on his/their authority. If you have never made the Rutherford experiment, you are accepting it on authority. Authority of one who made it once or fourscore who checked and double-checked by repeating the experiment: as long as YOU are not one of those who made the experiment, YOU are accepting it on the authority of those who did.Also it should not be accepted because it is verifiable, but only if it is in fact verifed: by yourself - or by someone whose AUTHORITY you believe. Either you admit to believing this on the authority of Rutherford et al. or you claim to have made the experiment yourself or you are admitting you know nothing about it or you are talking bosh. Quintum non datur.


======> To repeat, the evidence is accepted:

A) because it is subject to verification,


and B) because it has been verified so many, many times by a veritable army of researchers, scholars, and scientists (experiments are conducted repeatedly precisely to build this level of confidence, eliminating any reasonable probability of misinterpretation, error, or deliberate deceit).


For it to be in error given this degree of confirmation would imply a conspiracy so gigantic as to strain human imagination. It is emphatically not accepted because Professor Exalted proclaimed it to be true. To summarize, a factual claim is accepted to be true if it is either self-evidently true, or the preponderance of the evidence suggests (to a very high probability) that it is true. In the latter case, it is not accepted on anyone's authority, but on many sources of evidence, including repeated experiments performed by many different individuals and groups. It is the variety of data, the repetition of the experiments, and the independence (even rivalry) of the experimenters, and not an assertion based on authority, that create the foundation for believing the truth of a particular hypothesis has been confirmed. <======



But these things: "many sources of evidence, including repeated experimentsperformed by many different individuals and groups" YOU know only by AUTHORITYof these many men (the authority of one being insufficient for you) who have said they made the experiment. You very well put the case WHY their authority is to be believed, but that does not alter the fact that anyone who has NOT made it himself, is accepting it ON AUTHORITY of those who have. Are you a scientist? If you are a scientist, you must accept the authority ofother scientists for any experiment result, any measure taken, that you do notintend to check yourself. Life is to short for any man making all theexperiments of modern science himself. He must rely on authority of others forsome of them. If you made the Rutherford experiment, you haven't made a thoroughcheck on astronomics. If you made either, chances are your biochemistry is all on authority and so on. And if you are a natural scientist, you are NOT the person checking the evidenceabout King Arthur or Battle of Waterloo (except perhaps some parts of the archeological evidence). Or if you are an historian, the scientific evidence is accessible to you only on authority of those who have checked it. I have actually caught you believing authority (alas, bad authority, which you should have checked!) on the relation between modern maths and logic. It is authoritywhich tells you modern maths have a valid concept that could not be reached by logic. Check it: if it cannot be reached by logic, how do you know it is valid?


Hans Georg Lundahl

C And in precisely this category I place ALSO (D, E, F, et c):



======> Something is either true or it is not. Truth must be demonstrated, not defined. The fact that you might want something to be true does not make it so.<======

That is insolent! I was asked to DEFINE knowledge on this thread, and definitions are further clarified by giving EXAMPLES. I am willing to demonstrate this as true authority granted that second hand knowledge or knowledge by authority is accepted. But that was not what I was doing. I was giving an example of my definition of knowledge on someone else's authority, not proving it to be a good example. That belongs really to another thread, if youwill go on about it. Here I am discussing whether you can have knowledge without authority.

D the human evidence of the Apostles in seeing the Resurrected Christ including the circumstances proving* it not a sham

====> You have just switched from scientific evidence which is subject to complete and repeated verification to religious dogma for which no verification is possible. You are not so much comparing apples and oranges as you are apples and orangutans. Moreover...In our time, whenever a particularly sensationly murder or series of murders occur, the police brace themselves for a deluge of pseudo confessors: people who had nothing whatsoever to do with the crime, but who nonetheless proclaim their own guilt. Such testimony, without further tangible proof linking these selfadmitted culprits to the crime is considered worthless, as it should be here. A group of individuals declaring that they all saw a certain man in a certain town on a certain day provides a tentative degree of evidence to establish that such and such a person was there. It in no sense provides any degree of evidence for supernatural events operating in violation of the known physical laws of nature.<====

I was not referring to the dogma confirmed by the Apostles' witness, though that dogma and that witness are preserved together, in the Catholic Church, I am referring to the witness: what they saw with their eyes, heard with their ears,felt with their fingertips (when S:t Thomas touched the Wounds) tasted (when they fried and ate the fish Christ gave them to catch) et c. It was certainly verifiable to them.

======> Such testimony is credible only with additional objective evidence confirming that the events described actually occurred. All of these claims are presented to us by a small number of individuals who (assuming they did in fact exist and are not merely characters in a fable) were hardly disinterested observers given their claim to have been participants in a series of extraordinary, indeed, supernatural events. <======

Small number of individuals? No. 500 men seeing Christ risen on one occasion is probably more than the men who made the Rutherford experiment - unless laboratories are wasting a lot of tax money!

Not disinterested observers is not an absolute requirement for thetrustworthiness of a witness. They were given a great interest in retracting the evidence, because they were tortured (St. John the Apostle) or actually killed (all other holy Apostles) for not retracting it. Furthermore lots of people who converted were in fact disinterested witnesses to the miracles they converted for: like physician St. Luke diagnosing death by broken neck and watching St.Paul resurrect him.* A parallell to your: "In addition to written accounts, there is abundantphysical evidence in the form of graves, expended munitions, discarded weapons,etc. By my standard, the combination of physical evidence, the changes in thepolitical/military/cultural balances in Europe (Napoleon was comprehensivelydefeated, France ceased to be the preeminent military power, hence subsequentevents unfolded under new constraints), and the primary accounts from manydifferent sources all produce an unavoidable conclusion that the aforementionedbattle occurred. I accept this body of information as evidence because it islogically coherent and mutually consistent."

E the human evidence of other authentic miracles (I do not generally reject human evidence on non-genuine, rather I accept it as evidence of diabolical pseudo-miracle)

====> There is to my knowledge no evidence of miracles, divine or diabolical, which would pass even a minimal test of plausibility, much less the far more rigorous proof any reasonable human being would insist on to validate such truly extraordinary claims. <====

Your minimal tests of plausibility work both ways, unless they are faulty. Even if it were implausible that Christ rose or that a sudden healing of an organic disease involving destroyed tissues occurred in Lourdes - and what do you, anagnostic, know about plausibility - it is still less plausible to deny it. Considering the facts, it is impossible, except by denying the facts, i e by lying.

======> You ask rhetorically: "what do you, an agnostic, know about plausibility", by which I asssume you mean that as an agnostic I am less gullible than others. Your assertion that although something is implausible, it is more implausible to deny it is bizarre. One denies the implausible precisely because it is implausible: it is folly to assert that something is highly unlikely to have occurred and then conclude it must have occurred. <======

Aha! Misrepresenting my argument!

I wrote: "Even if it were implausible that Christ rose or that a sudden healing of an organic disease involving destroyedtissues occurred in Lourdes - and what do you, an agnostic, know about plausibility - it is still less plausible to deny it."

"Even if implausible to accept, still less implausible to deny" does not mean the same thing as"Implausible to accept and therefore still less implausible to deny" which you are putting in "my mouth!" You are referring to Credo quia absurdum, which I was not paraphrasing, and does not mean quite what you say either.

F the evidence of Christ that he is God once the Resurrection proves he is neither a madman nor a scoundrel - since God would not resurrect either.

====> No independent evidence of any supernatural event, just an interesting story, not unlike The Lord of Rings, in which all of the central "witnesses" are in fact characters in the story. <====

Tolkien has not become a martyr to deny he made LOTR up. The Apostles were rather martyrs than admitting to have made it up - which would be involved in denying their tenets.

======> If the men and supernatural beings you describe are nothing more than characters in a fable, what then? <======

They aren't characters in fables. See new point on H.

G the evidence of this God and man about Church, about God and our eternal destiny

====> These are assumptions, not evidence. <====

Assumptions no. Evidence yes, considering the above evidence, which in vain you have slurred on.

======> You have offered many assumptions, but no evidence (and hence I have not slurred on it). If I missed the evidence do itemize it here. <======

Itemised: D, E, and F. As above. You have attacked each point in vain, I have defended them.

H the evidence of this Church on what he said - it includes already the human evidence of the Apostles, but through the authority of God transcends this to be the Voice of God. (I separate attacks i and ii)

i ====> Assumptions built on assumptions, but no actual evidence. <====

The evidence of this Church on what he said is historical authority as well as divine. If you belive George Allen and Unwin when reproducing what JRRT wrote -as fiction - how come you do not accept the evidence of the Church as to what Christ actually said - as doctrine? The authority questions involved in the human evidence are not all that different.

======> Tolkien wrote fiction based on Christian religious concepts (you consider them to be true, I consider them to be a mix of non-supernatural fact and fiction). Other authors have written fiction based on Tolkien's mythology. Should I therefore now consider Tolkien's work to be a true account of actual events? <======

He wrote fiction based on historical events. To accept the Restoration of the Imperial dignity in the West by Pope crowning Charlemagne has nothing to do with accepting the coronation of Aragorn, which is based on it. To accept the swamping of rural culture by officials as a modern and deplorable fact has nothing to do with accepting The Scouring of the Shire (with a happy end we haven't seen yet) as historical fact. You are comparing apples and oranges.

NEW: I believe George Allen and Unwin as to what Tolkien actually wrote. Did Tolkien write the chapter The Tower of Cirith Ungol? George Allen and Unwin are my authority he did so. Did Tolkien write fiction or literally true stories? George Allen and Unwin tell me at least implicitly he wrote fiction. In the same manner I believe the Church as to what Christ actually said and did. Both Bible and oral tradition. And that the narrative is of literally true events rather than fiction. Not JUST because the Church is divine, but even on its human authority it would need some motivation to doubt its testimony on its own beginning. The mere possibility is not motive enough. Moreover, it claims so much on human nature, it would not have been humanly possible to convert men of virtually all nations without proving its divine authority by further miracles.

ii ======> Actually, not so much assumptions as free roaming mysticism: the sort that proclaims a mystical truth: that is, an imaginary "truth" that is defined to be true by virtue of its initial assertion ("I declare this to be true,therefore it is true, therefore I can declare it to be true"). <======


You have obviously NOT read the evidence as itemised above. Your discourteouss tatements are not even pure guesses, they are guesses in the teeth of evidence.

J In all these matters, I personally cannot verify, but God can verify and the witnesses to his revelation, including the obviously genuine miracles proving it to be divine, can verify that he has verified.

====> The existence of God is an assumption. Offering it as proof of other assumptions is like building a skyscraper on a foundation of sand. <====

I am not offering God's existence as proof. I am claiming God's testimony is proof. This is only possible if he exists, and yet i have NOT to assume his existence to PROVE his testimony, ONLY to EXPLAIN it. See further Logics thread.

Original message.


======> Very cute, but you do have to assume His existence in order to assume His testimony is in fact His. You cannot offer testimony from someone whose very existence is problematical: if your conjectural being does not in fact exist, then what is the source of His purported testimony? <======

I have to assume it as the causal explanation of the testimony that is well established and proven without first assuming this cause. See above. If you think proving and causally explaining are the same operation and would make a circle, you need to refresh your logics - see thread. I refer to the admission by Voice Of Principle on knowledge thread, that I put to my new logics thread as well. Point 5, on manifesting one's existence. For the benefit of zoombwaz I repeated it there.
*St Luke obviously watched St Paul resuscitate the boy who had fallen from the window.