Showing posts with label Netscape Boards. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Netscape Boards. Show all posts

Friday, October 17, 2014

...on necessity and authority of Catholic Church

Quoth tomcat:
"<>

This is not the teaching of the Catholic Church."
My answer
It is. It was solemnly defined by a council of the Church, to wit the council of Florence, the decree for the Armenians.

[Was not adressed to all of the council/all of the Church and not signed by all of the council.]
Quoth rose_beverly:
"What if I believe that the Catholic Church has lost the moral authority to lead and to teach and that Christians must seek Christ among true believers who have not been so tainted by scandal?"

[Note, what we are discussing is Catholic Church, not Vatican II Sect.]
My answer
Idiocy, since the public teaching authority of the Catholic Church is NOT immediately dependent on the kind of moral authority that a saint or a virtuous pagan philosopher has. St Peter did not lose Papacy on scandalising by association with judaisers, nor by the flight on Via Appia. His successor Alexander VI did not lose papacy by having a concubine.

Sincerely

Hans Georg Lundahl
@ rose_beverly ...
"What if I believe that the Catholic Church has lost the moral authority to lead and to teach and that Christians must seek Christ among true believers who have not been so tainted by scandal?"
dhux wrote on claim of Catholic Church to be the Apostolic Church:
"The Reformation did not happen without such causes. No one rationally argues that God allows such an institution to represent his will on Earth or maintain accurate beliefs."
My answer
I am reminded of a retort by Terence Hill, when challenged that nobody could oppose this or that crook and get away with it: "My name is nobody." (Nobody = no one)

I do rationally argue so.

God cannot make a Church of only Saints without taking away free-will and the possibility for people who lapse into sin to recuperate their righteousness. Therefore official authority in His Church cannot depend immediately and totally on being for the moment a righteous person. It cannot be the same as a merely moral authority, like the authority of a Saint or a righteous pagan philosopher as a model for others. Official authority rather implies that authority be obeyed irrespectively of whether the person wielding it be righteous or sinful. Just as the right to property implies that property be owned irrespectively of whjether the owner be righteous or sinful. The parallel is not totally flippant. The Valdensians, Petrobrussians and Lollards denied precisely both tenets by the subterfuge that this or that right be lost as soon as a man be sinful. The logic correlate would be that a sinner looses ALL right. Which is of course idiotic. Barbaric. Catholicism means that a sinner retains his rights at least in the external forum and when no heresy be involved until otherwise be judged by Church or State. Which in its turn means that sinners who are powerful are not always judged and condemned to lose their rights of public authority in Church or State or of property, even when such loss is an adequate punishment for the sin in question.

If you call this defense irrational, dhux, you are a mad fanatic.
Quoth Phil_Mtooth:
"Is it reasonable to represent a Church as the One True Church when that has effort has already failed?"
My answer
What do you mean "as effort has already failed"? Qué? You mean effort of persuading everyone? The Church has NOT the duty to succeed in persuading everyone, only the duty to teach every nation. If no nation had ever listened, but the Church done as much anyway (a practical impossibility, as well as a theological one, but assuming it for arguments sake) the Church had done its duty and would be reasonable in continuing this claim.

As a matter of fact LOTS of nations have listened - including the English, though most of it apostasised by Reformation by the time of the Gun-powder plot or the unrighteous hangings in CHarles II's time (against his conscience, as he was a secret Catholic)
Quoth Phil_Mtooth:
"The logic of the Church was not sufficient to forstall heresy........"
My answer
Wrong. The goodwill of some was not sufficient to make them see perfectly logical explanations to their difficulties - or answers to their outright blasphemies.

It is not truth and logic, only fable and prejudice, which forestalls heresy, and that by evading the very question of truth and exact definition.

[Grammatical clarification "which forestalls" = zeugmatic for "which forestalls or fails to forestall"]


On Netscape Boards (?) and Yahoo Boards: 2003-03-12 (March 12 Two thousand three) 20:27, 20:29, 20:36, 20:38, 20:39
On Antimodernism : 10/20/2003 6:13 PM, 6:24 PM, 6:26 PM, 6:27 PM

http://www.webcitation.org/5eo3MCTnE

Wednesday, November 26, 2008

physics debate getting to real interesting clarifications and side issues

From a side issue - on dating vs. Bible - the conversation between valencequark and neocatholic VLinvicus took this relevant turn, which I intersperse with my answers:


valencequark wrote:

vl meant that you believe that the sun revolves around the earth.



-vq




Oh - I was afraid that might very well be the case.



Hans Georg Lundahl



VLinvictus wrote:

Tell me:



Are the moon, sun, and plaents suspended in crystaline spheres concentrically arranged around the central point of earth until the sphere of the fixed stars and the primum mobile be reached?




Seems quite likely, as far as I know. If the Church Fathers exposing the Psalms or Work of Six Days or something unanimously say so, then so it is - if not it might be not the case. And before you ask me whether space travel should be explained by holes in the crystalline spheres or by not having occurred, I say: I do not know. I never claimed to know everything, you know.



Certainly space travel has NOT exploded the sphere of the fix stars. Rather it was supposing a certain annual very minute movement to have parallax as cause for its appearance and not occurring in most stars that gave heliocentric astronomers the impression that the fix stars had many different distances from earth.



HGL



Is Satan encased in ice at the core of the earth?



More probably in the fire that is not quenched. Location otherwise correct. Dante took some poetic liberties: Divina Commedia is science fiction of Theology (Eschatology of each soul) rather than Theology (Eschatology of each soul) pure and simple.



Hans Georg Lundahl


valencequark wrote:

i believe that he encounters several problems with his earth centered model of the solar system.



the gravitational attraction between masses is very well known and can be measured. we know that the sun is many orders of magnitude more massive than earth. how does he propose that the earth holds the sun in a stable orbit, given this little problem of the mass difference?




I do not believe that the earth holds the sun in orbit, nor do I believe the sun could hold the earth in orbit as Newton imagined and I learned in school. His (?)parallell of something being rotated on a string equates the supposedly equal centrifugal and centripetal forces of momentum and gravitation in supposed solar system with the obviously greater and static strength of the string keeping the stone (or whatever) in orbit.



the motion of other planets is documented to reverse itself now and then for smll increments of time (retrograde motion). to most people, this is due to the relative motion of earth and other planets as they both revolve about the sun. how does one account for the retrograde motion of the other planetsin an earth centered frame?




To Aristotle who knew this very well, this is due to them being directed directly by angels - or "gods" as the pagans would have called them. Argument mentioned by St Thomas. Though Aristotle was wrong in limiting angels to those directing the stars: he thought that everything below the moon orbit was directed by necessary influence from the stars.




how does one account for the redshift of distant objects as they recede from the milky way in an earth centered frame?




One possibility would be that the red shift is not due to any Doppler effect, but rather to greater redness in light source.




does he believe in ufos? if so where do they come from/




-vq




I believe the empiric facts attested by people claiming to have seen ufos. I do not believe them to come from outer space, more probably from Hell - in order to terrorise and entice people into accepting some sort of New Age or New World Order. Or in order to make physicians and authorities overestimate the occurrence of hallucinations.


HGL




valencequark wrote:

so you believe in a static universe? then you have major problems. it is the angular momentum of the earth about the sun which keeps it from crashing into the sun. in a static solar system there is nothing to keep the earth from being dragged into the sun, unless of course you don't beleive in gravity.


Did you miss that I do not believe in the SOLAR system at all?

then you encounter other problems, such as: how do you explain the result of cavendish's experiment?


Which is what?

what about baron von eotvos?


Which is what?


as for your second point: you find it more plausible that angels keep planets where they are rather than angular momentum? yeah, right.


Angular momentum would require planetary orbits of other shape than actual obserbations.

your last point about redshift doesn't wash. redder balckbody radiation is associated with cooler sources, which is possible to occur. however, cooler sources not only produce redder light but they produce less of it, so you would have detection problems. no, the redshift is due to the motion of far off objects, not to reduced temperature.


-vq


You are assuming that you already know all about the different causes of redshift. That you can rule them out one by one.

Considering your fantastic explanation of where the momentum goes when a body is standing still - turning into "potential energy" - you might be less picky about explanations being too fantastic or out of the way.

HGL

valencequark wrote:
what is your definition of the solar system, hans? by solar system i meant the arrangement of the earth, other planets and the sun. to me, saying that you do not believe in the solar system is like saying that you don't believe that the sun exists. is this what you beleive?


Not believing the earth to be a planet or the sun to be its centre, I do not believe that SOLAR system is a proper name for it. Nor do I belive that its outer limit is very far from the sphere of the fix stars - so I believe its limitation from "other solar systems" and the belief such exist to be bosh. So, you were asking me a question about the Universe, to call it by its proper name and skip the artificial limitation?

HGL


as for the experiments that i mentioned, they were two experiments to measure gravitational attraction. cavendish measured the gravitational attraction bewteen two lead spheres and eotvos measured gravitational mass and inertial mass to see if they are equivalent (somehitng einstein incorporated into general relativity).


All right (for now, though I might have some reservations) - and who has actually and directly measured the mass of the sun? Obviously the supposed mass of the sun is a conclusion of its supposed position in the centre of a system that is supposedly solar. Or do you have better evidence?

HGL

what do you mean by angular momentum would require different orbital shapes?


Different from the ones actually observed with their retrograde motion: more like the ones theoretically constructed but never actually proven by Kepler at al.


again, jsut because you do not understand the concepts of momentum and energy does not mean that nobody else does either.


Just because you do not understand the concepts of substance and relation, of act and potency does not mean nobody does so either. [That was ad hominem, but vq didn't offer any argument in this paragraph to be more rationally argued]

HGL

PS, from vq's previous argument:
vq wrote:

redder balckbody radiation is associated with cooler sources, which is possible to occur. however, cooler sources not only produce redder light but they produce less of it, so you would have detection problems.


Also if the distance to the sphere of fix stars is very small? I mean, a small amount of light may well be detected at closer hand which would be undetectable at the great distances that do not prove since they are supposed to be proven from the parallactic nature of certain annual motions in certain fix stars not to be detected by naked eye, nor even by Galileo's telescope.

HGL

If you are tempted to skirt the last issue raised on my message, here is the link to my last post on the other subthread, where it belongs: here

valencequark wrote:
i have not attempted to skirt anything, dear fool. i have, however wasted enough of my time on the likes of you. you refuse to believe experimental verification of the laws of physics, but you believe in the absolute truth of some mythical tale from a group of people who had virtually no understanding of their surroundings.

good day to you, sir!


-vq


As courteous in what he is saying as on a certain previous occasion - though somewhat more courteous in wording. Were you upset at seeing my little mistake in the html? I've corrected it.

A group of people with virtually no understanding of their surroundings you say: do you mean with no heliocentrism and Newtonism or what? I call that an advantage. Refuse to believe experimental verification of physical law? As when I refuse to call a bad verification a good one (Corioli effect for instance) or as when I refuse to agree to your question begging applications of physical laws supposed to be proven by experiments?

Well, at least the Apostles and their contemporaries knew:
a) only God can raise the dead, no natural cause can do so
b) only God or angels or the devil can cause lots of people to see the same thing that physically is not present
c) the devil has no power to heal miraculously, which God has
d) God doesn't support the testimony of madmen or liars by miracles and he puts narrow limits on the devil's power to do so
e) if people lie they do so to achieve an advantage and so they won't cling to a lie they made up or its moral correlates if it means death penalty
f) someone who has been fooled by a false original witness doesn't pretend to be the original witness, himself because he is by hypothesis honest
g) a physician can tell when someone who has fallen out of a window and broken his neck is stone dead - a man who has been buried in heavy swathings with lots of aromatic herbs and no air for three days (like Christ, minus the herbs) or four (like Lazarus) must be dead, at least from suffocation, even if he wasn't so to start with

and somehow or other some of you manage to deny either one or the other of these basics and deny the correlate following from them and historic record: that Christ is indeed risen, that he is indeed God, as he said. You are not the one to talk loud about believing myths and refusing experimental verification.

HGL
...
Is vq sulking because my point wasn't cluttered and because I hadn't misunderstood the terminology of modern physics? I wrote the post below the day before yesterday, and vq has previously lost his temper at least twice in this debate:


valencequark wrote:
your first point is totally cluttered. are you measuring kinetic or potential energy?


I was asking the question whether potential energy had ever been actually directly measured.

HGL
...et c as above

VLinvictus wrote:
Perhaps, like me, he found it impossible to communicate with you, since you appear to live in a completely different universe from either him or me. That can be quite frustrating.


I am constantly referring - also on this thread - to things that can be verified in the Universe we all - including himself and you - live in. Like no instrument directly measuring potential energy which furthermore cannot be identified with either force (because, unlike "potential energy" it does not increase with height above ground) nor momentum (because a non-moving object has none) nor with any other unitary entity or quality and the quantity of which is a postulate for theory of conservation of energy.

HGL

Don't you get frustrated when people refuse to believe that the earth is truly the center of the universe, that the sun revolves around it? When they refuse to believe that time is not a dimension? That John Paul II is not the Pope?


I know some things I am in for. People refusing to believe me is no great inconvenience, since I am not asking them just to take my word for it. I would be stupid if I did. People who shirk argument are more of a bother.

HGL

Actually, I would wager that you don't get upset at all. You can rely on your own superiority in possessing "the truth."

Well, I can do the same.

You have not commented on it, but many who reject Vatican II reject the decree of religious freedom. I support that decree wholeheartedly, and you are free to believe whatever you wish so long as you do not attempt to use the coercive power of the state to make me believe it. Since you are a Swede or a Norwegian or a Dane--I have not figured out which--I feel no political threat from you.


I am of course against the Dignitatis Humanae document in the meaning it obviously seems to have and is supported as having by JPII. The meaning which says it was a crime to burn Giordano Bruno or Valdensians and Albigensians. Nonetheless, you may be correct in feeling no political threat from me. You see, whatever right a Catholic state has to combat error, that gives Protestant and Secularised states (you could describe Scandinavia as both of them de facto, besides being de jure but since four centuries no longer de facto Catholic countries) no right whatsoever to combat each and every dissent including such as is based on truth. If you want to describe me as Swede, Dane or Norwegian, none is totally inaccurate as far as ancestry is concerned, but my citizenship is Swedish.

HGL

So, guess what, Hans? You win! Yes! The earth is the center of the universe! The sun revolves around it! Gravity is a lie! Copernicus and Gallileo roast in hell!


Copernicus gave us a hypothesis superficially useful for computing motions of planets by using a model simpler than reality. Galileo gave intellectual assent to the hypothesis as a reality, but withdrew that support. As far as I know both died as good Catholics - Galileo as a penitent. And why do you concede even more than I have asked you to concede?

Because I am no political threat to you? For no intellectual reason? And what about the thing this thread is about? Have you encountered the idea that threads are supposed to be about some subject and not just to be cluttered up with any subject that happens to come to your mind?

No, this was not so much an apology for vq's silence on the points I have raised as an ironically worded rebuke for raising these points or any at all in any rational manner.

HGL

"No serious takers for five days... "

I wrote, starting from older messages (time to review them in right reading order:

1 valencequark wrote:

physicists don't postulate a prime mover, you fuckwit.


You change the terminology, but you still think there is an ultimate cause for anything being kept in movement being kept in movement: you call it energy and claim it is impersonal and immanent, other Philosophers call it God and the best of them reject your view precisely because the prime mover must be actual, not potential, therefore not immanent, furthermore identic with prime cause (2nd way) prime necessary existence (3d way, which you used to identify with matter and nowadays identify with energy), the intelligence behind the order of the universe (4th way), the ultimate perfection (5th way) and for these last reasons not impersonal. If I point this out to you, you cling to distinctions that are more terminological than real and insult me.

HGL

have tolerated your ludicrous ideas for far too long. ... you have no grasp of what i refer to as energy.


Why were my physics grades so good then?

your argument that i am placing god like qulities on energy rests on the existence of god, which you have spectacularly failed to do.


I have not so failed, it was not so much an argument as an accusation, the starting point for the argument above.

HGL

nobody has any emprical proof of god, or everyone would be religious.


Everyone was religious, until it was seen too clearly that it involves being a Catholic and was rejected for selfish real reasons with the aid of a rhetoric trying to hide it with, amongst other things, bad philosophy and science.

and as far as you referring to me as an idiot, well i guess it takes one to know one, you smug arrogant flat earthed fool.


  • A) I am not flat earthed.

  • B) You seem to refer to: "But some idiots who call themselves physicists really want very badly to place the principle of movement and change, of cause, permanence and existence, within the limits of the physical, the manyfold, the continuous (though they tend to deny the reality of continuum by atomism), the moved, the changing, the caused, the things that would obviously for any sane man be seen as also kept in existence and whatever permanence it has by something else. Something outside it. Therefore they pretend that something they call energy is this first mover, cause, necessary existence. But that contention is disproven by the potentiality of energy, especially apparent in potential energy - while the first mover, cause and necessary existance must be actual to move, cause, (put and) keep in existence anything else." I was not saying something about your own precious little person apart from the other ones. If you are so sensitive about the category you place yourself in being referred to as a bunch of idiots, you might do well not so to refer to your betters, like fundies or dogmatic Catholics.


if ignorance is bliss, you must be the happiest mother f@cker this side of equator.



-vq


Ignorance isn't bliss - so you are not and I am not.

HGL

2 valencequark wrote:

ok, firstoff: i apologize for losing my temper, it was uncalled for.

now, you cannot accuse me of changing terminology on you when it is you who is misusing words.


I am not misusing words, nor am I accusing thee personally but rather you-all modern physicists collectively of changing terminology.

energy is nothing more than a measureable quantity posessed by physical systems that happens to be conserved.


How do you measure potential energy? If you suspend a stone from a Newton-metre ten miles above ground (in a balloon) and from a Newton-metre standing on the ground, does the Newton-metre show MORE energy in the first case? No. Saying it is conserved means that measurings of later kinetic energy are accepted as measurings of former "potential energy".

and the reason that it is conserved is because the laws of physics are symmetrical with respect to time. so what? linear momentum and angular momentum are conserved for similar reasons. there is nothing "god like" about conservation laws.


In "potential energy" there is as yet no movement, hence no momentum.

if your phsyics grades were so good, why is it that you misunderstand something galileo postulated over 400 years ago. an object that is moving with constant velocity will continue to do so indefinately unless acted upon by an exteral force.


That is a postulate - not an observed fact. Aristotle observing that sublunar objects flying through the air and eventually losing momentum and falling to the ground said the opposite.

i don't see anything required to keep objects in motion.


Even on your supposition the conservation of momentum is required.

you still misunderstand what potential energy is, and i have explained it to you once before. potential energy is real energy, systems posses it.


In school I was taught OBJECTS possess kinetic energy when moving, potential energy when in a postion where a force could make them move once the obstacle is removed. Now, I was asking in what way the STONE that is ten miles above ground possesses any entity that is greater than the corresponding entity in a stone three feet above ground. SYSTEMS - well, that is another matter: there we are not touching substantial ENTITY, but rather RELATION.

it comes in several varieties. it is called potential energy because it has the potential to be kinetic energy. . it is not called potential energy because it is not energy, that is a misconception.


It is called potential because it is just potentially and not yet really kinetic energy which in turn is called energy because it is not really but just potentially physical work.

you make the unwarranted assupmtion that there is some intelligence behind the order in the universe. that is not a necessary condition of an ordered universe. it may be a sufficient condition, but it is NOT necessary.


Wake up. Welcome to reality. There is such a thing as common sense, you know.

the expansion of the universe totally negates the need for an intelligence to order things.


The what? Are you referring to some farfetched conclusion from the redshift?

why? becase the entropy of a system relates to the number of microstates that a system can be in. as you increase the size of the universe you increase the number of possible microstates that it can have. when you do this, you increase the maximum value of disorder that the universe can have by a whole bunch, when the actual disorder of the universe hasn't increased.


If the Universe were blindly expanding, the actual disorder would increase. Stability is a known prerequisite for order.

it si therefore possible to order some regions, disorder other regions by a greater amount as required by thermodynamics, and still eb under the maximum value of entropy that the universe can have. no intelligence required, only the laws of physics.


Correct me if I am wrong, but these laws of thermodynamics have been determined not only or purely by sublunar observations, but rather by taking into account the supposed heliocentrism of the supposed solar system.

Furthermore not increasing disorder is something other than ordering what had no order to start with.

Furthermore you are giving me a naked statement rather than technical proof - a statement which to any man possessed of common sense seems to accuse you of exactly what I did accuse you of: giving matter and energy the attributes of God as discovered by metaphysics: in this case intelligence designing the well-ordered reality we see around us. That makes it the 4th way of proving the existence of God that modern physics parodies.

now, before you go to "well, where do the laws of physics come from" let me assure you that god will never be an answer. why? because that would be a supernatural explanation, which means you are no longer doing physics.


If you are:

  • A) claiming to seek an answer

    and

  • B) excluding the obvious answer because it belongs to a higher science

    you are also

  • C) courting wrong answers, like postulating this or that divine attribute for the things that your science claims to study objectively.


further, as we make progresses with the quantum theory of fields we may come closer and closer to explaining the universe with a few numbers, rather than with a few physical values that have to be measured in a lab.


But is it the real universe as actually observed that you are explaining - or a construction that has no proven identity with it?

as for your physics grades: well, those are your business, not mine. but i'm willing to bet that mine are at least as good as yours.

-vq


I never denied yours were good. Only I would have got really bad ones if I had misunderstood the basic concepts, you know. So, your guess on why we differ seems to be quite wrong.

Hans Georg Lundahl

3 valencequark wrote:
your first point is totally cluttered. are you measuring kinetic or potential energy?


I was asking the question whether potential energy had ever been actually directly measured.

HGL

well...if you use a "newton meter", which i assume is something that reads a value in newtons, to measure an object obove earth, you are directly measuring the gravitational force on the object.


Go on.

this is related to the potential energy, which can be calculated given the force reading.


Related to means like not identical with, correct me if I am wrong. So measuring the force is not measuring the potential energy.

HGL

there should be no mention of kinetic energy becuase the object is assumed stationary, so it has zero kinetic energy.


Exactly, so whenever one measures kinetic energy later, there is no potential energy left to be measured, by hypothesis. Measuring the later kinetic energy is therefore not measuring the potential energy it had.

HGL

and yes, your scale reads smaller forces as you increase your altitude, in fact the gravitational acceleration field generated by earth drops off as the inverse square of the distance from the center of the earth, and since f=ma (newton's second law) you can relate the force to the gravitational acceleration.


Which further underlines that "potential energy" is not directly measured by using the newton-metre, also that potential energy is not identical with the force acting on the object.

HGL

physicists define terms so that they may communicate, this is a part of life. if you want to talk physics, you had better use teh terminology in the sense of physics.


Even if your terminology can be seen as muddled when measured by the facts?

HGL

as far as potential energy and momentum, i was merely pointing out that conservation of energy is one of several conservation laws on physics, i was not trying to incorporate linear or angular momentum into a definition of potential energy.


I was not accusing you of that. I was merely ruling out the identification of "potential energy" with momentum. Kinetic energy can be so identified and seen to be a real and actual quality in the object itself as falling - but in what category of being would you place "potential energy"?

HGL

inertia is a postulate and an experimentally verified fact.


Like most physicists you assume inertia to mean quite as much continuing in a linear motion at constant speed as standing still until moved. When was it verified that objects in linear motion at constant speed continue until acted on? When was it verified that an arrow loses momentum by air resistance rather than by inertia in the old aristotelic sense, being loth to move?

HGL

aristotle was wrong in his analysis because he failed to take into account that air is composed of tiny molecules that cumulatively exert noticable forces on moving objects.


How do you prove air resistance is the cause an arrow loses momentum?

HGL

an object moving through air under no forces besides those due to air will lose momentum (and kinetic energy) and fall to the ground (losing potential energy).


How do you know the air resistance to be so great that it causes the arrow to lose momentum - rather than the arrow losing momentum by being material and therefore inert in the good old aristotelic sense?

HGL


potential energy is related to the concpet of work because to increase an object's potential energy one must do physical work on the object.


The concept of potential energy is also related [to physical work]as follows: "potential energy" is supposed to be converted into same quantity of kinetic energy which can be converted into "same quantity" physical work. Which is why I take it that one of the methods of measuring "potential energy" indirectly is measuring the work "its" ensuing kinetic energy=momentum actually does(=impact) and assuming the quantity is the same minus air friction.

Physical work is easy to identify, so is kinetic energy=momentum, but potential energy cannot be identified with force, since the force acting is supposed to be smaller in a situation where the potential energy is supposed to be greater.

HGL


me wake up? sorry, but you flailing your ignorance of physics and crying about terminology does not make you any more in tune with reality than i.

-vq


Valence Quark is certainly awake enough to be dishonest in argument by giving non causa pro causa: I told him to wake up when claiming there is no need for a designer of the Universe.

HGL

Rocketman Allen, olblucat budging in about energy

RocketmanAllen wrote:

Who or what created God? And with that, I hereby declare myself a "serious taker".


Allright, Allen! And to the point as well. This thread is actually a sub-point on my old reply to your question: there must be something which exists in its own right especially if other things depend on it for existence. And that something everyone, except modern physicists calls God, but modern physicists claim that energy is what needs nothing else to exist. Below I have challenged that identification: Allen, are you prepared to defend it against my rather technical arguments on the nature of physic energy, especially potential energy?

HGL

olblucat wrote:
In all seriousness, Mr Lundahl. Either the world is wrong or you are.
You would never have passed my senior high school Finals with your interpretation of Physics. You would have failed in the first physics experiment lab.

I cannot comprehend your twisting of basic physics and ignoring basic physical actions.
I'm waiting for you to prove water flows uphill next.

A total waste of reading time.


Not a serious taker - just a physicist claiming I have misunderstood, without pointing out exactly where - just like valancequark who has also decided to beat about the bush. Did you or did you not read my arguments about what potential energy clearly cannot be identified with? Have you or have you not an answer?

HGL

olblucat wrote:
Mr Lundahl

You made two statements that I find very contrarywise to most of my physics knowledge.

First, the conservation of energy and the potential energy.

I have observed objects falling from heights and their destruction.
Practical experience says the destruction is greater as the starting point of the fall begins. The force of impact is much greater also.


You mean the destruction of falling objects is greater the higher the object falls from? I agree. Were did you find me stating the contrary? I have not denied that there is some sort of proportion between the physical work done in lifting an object, the kinetic energy (momentum) of it falling and the impact (new physical work) done when it smashes. I have stated a problem: between the lifting and the falling there is no entity internal to the object or otherwise per se actual that preserves this proportion. That means: potential energy is not a positive real entity, the conservation of energy is rather a theoretic conservation of figures on a paper than a conservation of any positive entity. That means: physical energy cannot be the ultimate ground of existence, as it has been usually presented to the general public since it was discovered by Hiroshima that physical matter certainly wasn't. HGL

The reasons for an object losing it's energy in linear or angular momentum.

Again, as with the first part, I have observed many times this application in real time.

The above two have direct bearing on two of my own interests. Ballistics, both rockets and cannon shell, and aerodynamics as applied to both flying modelplanes and ground vehicles.

Now, I am confused as to what you believe controls all the various physical actions observed and studied and the results obtained.

If my interpretation of your beliefs are correct, then I can throw 100 years of testing and designing of airfoils out the window, as well as years of windtunnel testing.

This hasn't considered the same effects as applied to water craft such as the America Cup ship and sail designs.

You speak of theory, while I have to apply it.


Please, Oblucat. Would you do less interpretation of what I mean and what that would mean to ballistics and more of answering the points raised? Or was that the answer to my point: what proof is there that only air friction is responsible for any loss of momentum? My answer to that would be that some of your loss of momentum is not due to air friction but happens anyway. I think there would be acceptable ways of getting that into your calculations without upsetting the actual results. HGL

I do apologize for my poor phrasing. I do have a personal problem with extracting the correct words at the correct time from my thoughts and placing them on paper.

olblucat

Voice of Principle comments on my dialogue with olblucat

...I have observed objects falling from heights and their destruction.
Practical experience says the destruction is greater as the starting point of the fall begins. The force of impact is much greater also.


You mean the destruction of falling objects is greater the higher the object falls from? I agree. Were did you find me stating the contrary? I have not denied that there is some sort of proportion between the physical work done in lifting an object, the kinetic energy (momentum) of it falling and the impact (new physical work) done when it smashes. I have stated a problem: between the lifting and the falling there is no entity internal to the object or otherwise per se actual that preserves this proportion.

====<1> Hans: Your error in understanding the nature of potential energy is due to the fact that you are looking only at the object. Potential energy involves an object + the gravitational field in which it finds itself. The distance of the object from the field's center of gravity + the distance over which the object will free fall determines the magnitude of the potential energy. <1>====


To VoP: NB will fall. Not something that is actually but something that will potentially. Which is basically what I am saying.
_____________________________




That means: potential energy is not a positive real entity, the conservation of energy is rather a theoretic conservation of figures on a paper than a conservation of any positive entity.

====<1> If that were the case, then perpetual motion machines would be possible and the world's energy problem would have been long since solved. <1>====


To VoP: how does that follow?
_______________________________



That means: physical energy cannot be the ultimate ground of existence, as it has been usually presented to the general public since it was discovered by Hiroshima that physical matter certainly wasn't.

====<1> An unfounded conclusion. <1>====


To VoP: the conservation of matter as ground of existence and energy as ground of movement independently of each other seems to have been disproven by Hiroshima bomb.


HGL


The reasons for an object losing it's energy in linear or angular momentum.

Again, as with the first part, I have observed many times this application in real time.

The above two have direct bearing on two of my own interests. Ballistics, both rockets and cannon shell, and aerodynamics as applied to both flying modelplanes and ground vehicles.

Now, I am confused as to what you believe controls all the various physical actions observed and studied and the results obtained.

If my interpretation of your beliefs are correct, then I can throw 100 years of testing and designing of airfoils out the window, as well as years of windtunnel testing.

This hasn't considered the same effects as applied to water craft such as the America Cup ship and sail designs.

You speak of theory, while I have to apply it.


Please, Oblucat. Would you do less interpretation of what I mean and what that would mean to ballistics and more of answering the points raised? Or was that the answer to my point: what proof is there that only air friction is responsible for any loss of momentum?

====<1> The proofs are many. Changing the shape of the arrow, particularly the arrow head, can improve or degrade flight distance in a mathemtically predictable fashion based on an analysis of aerodynamic factors. The same analysis can be applied to any object traveling through the atmosphere (using an appropriate data base describing the physical characteristics of the object).

Orbiting spacecraft outside the atmosphere experience virtually no frictional effects due to collisions with air molecules (the noteworthy exception being the solar wind), and therefore remain in orbit for centuries, millenia, or millions of years (duration depending on the mass of the craft and the nature of the chance atoms and molecules it encounters, space not being a perfect vacuum).

Perhaps the best example of air resistance was the recent tragedy involving the space shuttle Columbia. As the vehicle broke up and lost aerodynamic integrity, frictional forces created by its interaction with the upper atmosphere consumed so much energy that the pieces of the vehicle ended their flight hundreds of miles short of their destination, Cape Canaveral. <1>====


To VoP: you reason mostly as if rebutting the position that air friction were not a cause for loss of momentum. That is not my position. As for satellites outside atmosphere, the artificial ones have only been up a few decades, and the millennia of the others is begging the question: how do you, not explain, but prove that lack of air fricion and momentum preserved by such lack are the causes of that movement?

Hans Georg Lundahl

closing of physics debate

Ken 052246 wrote:
Hans

It seems you are right that the potential kinetic energy of an object is not stored internally (except in terms of its mass), but exists in the relationship of the suspended object and the earth.

You seem to be saying since the energy is not internally stored, therefore the potential energy is not real and energy is not the "ultimate ground of existence". I wonder, if the energy is not real, where does the force exhibited by impact come from? Are you saying this is external to the object?

The causal or logical link that seems apparent to you escapes me, and also the implications, since this seems to have an import to you.



  • Does potential energy exist as a substance, a thing? No.

  • Is it as one determinate quantity of one thing? No.

  • Is it as one determinate quality of one thing? No.

  • Is it one determinate actual relation between two things - see first post. The real actual relations are other.

  • Is it a place or a time or a situation of the parts of one determinate thing? No.

  • Is it an actual action or passion or "having"? No.

  • Is it actual but transcendental, in many of the categories? No.

It is potential, not actual.

That potential is reduced to act in the fall of the object. When it comes to falling, there is an actual passion - falling - and an actual action - the impact on the ground. Whether you account for the passion by the striving of the heavy thing for its natuaral place (Aristotle) or by gravitation mutual between object and earth (Newton), the potential is reduced to act thereby, not by any potential energy. The potential energy is precisely that potential which is reduced to act, not the cause of that reduction to act!!! And potential energy being one form of energy means that energy is sometimes potential rather than actual, which rules it out from being the ultimate ground of actual existence, something which must be actual. I think I said as much to Rocketman Allen, in somewhat fewer words.

Hans Georg Lundahl

olblucat wrote:
Mr Lundahl

I was not attempting to debate you. That is best left up to individuals such as VQ and VOP.
I am just attempting to understand your Points. I thought at first you disagreed with the physical "laws".

You seem to feel there is a force acting that standard pyhsics does not address. I do not understand this.
If all my calculations work as designed to and the formulas give satisfactory results that function as designed, why add anything else? What am I to add? What is missing.

If a falling oject were to land on a push button and force the button down to enable the switch, where does that energy come from if not "potential".? When did that force appear?


Rather it is you who add un-necessary things - a potential energy with a determinate quantity - to account for conservation of energy without positing conservation of actual movement (a clearly contrafactual position). The fall is either caused by mutual attraction of heavy things (Newton) or of natural tendency of heavy things towards their natural place, middle of earth (Aristotle), and its momentum certainly increases by the cause adding to the momentum already gained. This means that movement is increased. There is simply no need to add a post in the account where that increase is balanced by exactly same decrease. Unless you beg the question by qualifying energy as ultimate ground of existence and therefore unchangeable in some respect (you've chosen quantity, but it should be all respects). HGL

Ken 052246 wrote:
Hans

You say:
"There must be something which exists in its own right especially if other things depend on it for existence".

Why does existence require some "other thing" that has to be depended on for existence?

I can see how the ratio of matter to anti-matter, or the sub-atomic constants might qualify, is that what you mean?

Since you do not believe in the solar system, I have to ask: Do you believe in atoms and the menagerie of sub-atomic particles in the standard model?


Independent existence by definition requires no other existence as ground for its being. Also it means invariable existence, existence that cannot be varied by other causes. Existence that is always actual, never merely potential.

Variable existence is obviously not independent and therefore obviously requires some other cause for its being.

Smaller and smaller particles may exist or not, but since their existence is varied, they cannot be the ultimate ground of existence. Nor can energy, for the reasons stated in the main post of this thread.

Hans Georg Lundahl

RocketmanAllen wrote:

GREAT POST! BRAVO!!!


Ragz95 wrote:

This is the very same nonsense used when Galileo showed definitively that the Earth was not at the center of the universe.

Almost 350 years later, the Christian community says "Well, you might be right about that one after all."

Evolution, natural selection and the like in no way diminishes your or my belief in God. In fact, it only enhances God's image when we realize what a remarkable machine is this universe of ours.

Can the head in the sand mentality and bring your mind into the real world. God is even more wonderous there than He is in your world of magic and miracles.

If the ideas of the Christians were allowed to prevail we would still be knee deep in the Dark Ages and they'd be butchering one another and every one else who didn't follow their religious philosophies.




Mr Ragz:
the Dark Ages (end of Roman administrative unity in the West to beginning of Reconquista and Crusades, some 500 years or so) were dark in view of military success and peaceful administration, but certainly NOT intellectually.

As for hanging Galileo, I am not for lynching the corpse of a man who retracted his mistake and, the second time (after 1633) kept faith with the Holy Inquisition.

As for putting head in sand, refusing to look at facts like an ostrich, I've not done so, but rather my opponents on physics thread and other threads. There is no conclusive evidence now and was no conclusive evidence then for heliocentrism.

I am quoting your sad post and the bravo of Rocketman, to show what I am answering.

Hans Georg Lundahl

Ken 052246 wrote:

How a literate human being living in the 21st century can say "There is no conclusive evidence now and was no conclusive evidence then for heliocentrism." is utterly beyond me.


budnfrog wrote:

yes, Hans is...he is in a world of his own...


Ken 052246 wrote:

Yes, a different reality. I read him saying if the Earth were moving, he would feel it, because it would throw off his sense of balance.
Balanced. Unbalanced. A thought is forming.......



I did not say THAT, did I? I said that my sense of balance tells me the earth stands still. As to whether my sense of balance would have the sense to be dizzy or not if it were the other way, I did not give any opinion. Before going into that, please give me proof my sense of balance is wrong in the first instance! People who first assume the sense of balance is wrong, then explain how it goes wrong and then take that explanation as proof for it actually being wrong, should not speak about being in a world of ones own or being unbalanced.

HGL

Thursday, November 20, 2008

... on Independent existence

Collected arguments in logical order.

RocketmanAllen wrote:


"Who or what created the creator. The creator simply came from non-existance ot existance or was simply always there?

"You can't apply the something must have created the universe for it to exist without that question coming around."


Objection overruled!

There is a distinction between what needs something else in order to exist and that which exists in its own right.

Everything needing something else to exist needs either something else that also needs something else to exist or it needs that which exists in its own right. Since nothing can depend on an infinite number of conditions for its existence(See footnote.)this brings us back to that which exists in its own right - and by definition, THAT does not need any Creator. But it may very well be the Creator - and actually is, as may be proven from another argument.

Hans Georg Lundahl


Footnote to Voice of Principle: the infinite is by definition what cannot be transcrossed. An infinite distance is a distance noone can pass through and an infinite number of conditions is one that never can be fulfilled. That is why the regress into the infinite is impossible.

Your definition of infinite is too limited. Consider an infinite convergent series. It is both infinite and fulfilled.


Infinite series are not actual infinities, only potential ones. Not that they have the potency actually to reach the infinite, but that there is no finite limit to their potency to go on. I am taking this to the Independent Existence thread, which is a spin-off from this. HGL


Your definition of the infinite implies that an infinite number of conditions must be processed serially. Why should this be a requirement? Suppose I have an infinite number of conditions designated condition 1, condition 2, condition 3, etc. Suppose all odd numbered conditions occur first and occur simultaneously. Suppose further that once the odd numbered conditions have occurred that the even numbered conditions will then occur, again all simultaneously. Under these condtions, an infinite number of conditions can be satisfied in a finite number of steps. Comments?




Yes. Accomplishing an infinite number of conditions simultaneously does not alter the nature of one condition depending on another. You claim an infinite number of steps could be made in a finite number of moments. It would be even clearer if we were arguing the 1st way, proof of unmoved mover.

The hit depends on the hammer in motion, the hammer in motion on the hand in motion, the hand on the arm, the arm on the will. Period. Only in further analysis we may see that the smith is not an unmoved mover in the full sense. But he is an example of what unmoved mover means in the process of hammering. Obviously the simultaneous conditions for the hammer hit cannot be infinite. Infinity is not to be transcrossed, a travel through infinity - whether temporal and successive or non-temporal and simultaneous - means never arriving.

Same goes for same reason for conditions of causation or - as we are discussing here - being, existence.

Hans Georg Lundahl


RocketmanAllen wrote:


"Somebody finally got it! (without realizing it). Neither can be proven to exist with or without the other.

"You caught yourself with your own argument.

"Creationists want to state that existance of anything cannot occur without a creator."


Not so - another misquoted argument.

The existence of anything DEPENDING ON SOMETHING ELSE FOR EXISTENCE cannot occur without the existence of that something else. There is a difference between "the existence of anything" and "the existence of anything DEPENDING ON SOMETHING ELSE FOR EXISTENCE" - see. You made a confusion between simpliciter and secundum quid - which is a sophism.

Hans Georg Lundahl


zoombwaz wrote:
"But who defines that which can exist on its own right, and that which must be created? You? Who is to say the universe doesn't exist in its own right? Your logic is faulty, as you assume the universse must be created, in order to prove the existence of a creator. It is in fact circular, and an unsupported premise to boot."


What is clearly dependent on something else for existence needs an ultimate necessarily existent ground for its existence, as proven. The question whether that ultimate ground is the creator is another one, the answer to which is NOT presupposed as necessary proof in the argument above, which is why my argument is NOT a circle in demonstration.

As to your question: existing in its own right means existing without depending on any other thing for it. It is an existance that cannot vary with the condition of other things. Hence everything the existence of which is demonstrably varied - like coming to exist or ceasing to exist - is ruled out from existing in its own right. This was proved already by the eleatic philosophers, who were NOT Christians.

Hans Georg Lundahl

Thursday, November 13, 2008

...on accusations by PhoenixCNA

While I was no longer with the Popes of the Vatican and not yet Orthodox:

PhoenixCNA wrote:



[[Hans:I will still read your posts and repond to some of your ignorance, stupidity, apostacy, heresy, blasphemy, consummate arrogance and willfullness in the way you treat your fellow RCs. Get yourself up to date in the current teachings of the Holy RCC. If I was your Bishop, I would have you excommunicated for the lies and distortions you spead in the name of the RCC.

You are a noeNazi, lover of torture, war and crime against humanity. You would revel in the death and destruction of the grossness of The Crusades.

You are a very mentally deranged individual. Someone has taught this singing pig (Hans) to sing - out of tune. Myself I prefer "Prancing Ponies". They are more intelligent, logical, and treat humans with greater respect.

PhoenixCNA.]]

Did you say apostasy, heresy and blasphemy? They are on your side, not mine.


You actually said I should get updated with the CURRENT teaching of the "Holy RCC". Well, according to Pope Gregory XVII, the Church is NO LONGER Roman, since Rome has lost the Faith. People who speak of CURRENT teaching, as if Catholicism were as shifty as secular science and included guesses because it was in SEARCH of truth - such people cannot be said to have the Faith or to be Catholics.

The person you call "my bishop" has recently succeeded a certain Hubertus Brandenburg (from Germany, and NOT Bavaria or Austria), whom eight months before I became Palmarian (provisorically, at least) I denounced to "Cardinal" Joseph Ratzinger for his ecumenical heresies and blasphemous lies about St Bridget of Sweden. When he "was Bishop of Stockholm" he shielded a certain Pierre Aupy "OP", who had concelebrated "Mass" with Lutheran laymen usurping priestly titles and wages. The Vatican could have checked the facts, it could have condemned him or forced him to recant in both cases - but didn't. What respect do I owe such traitors to Holy Faith? Such intruders into a see once Catholic?

Hans Georg Lundahl

Envoyé : 15/09/2002 13:32

Reconsiderations before the following:

a) if Lateran IV is not an Ecumenical Council no one needs approve the burning of heretics

b) if Florence is not an Ecumenical Council, one may hope that some people may be saved without open, conscious conversion, if they are faithful enough to what they do know about God


c) as to the Crusades, there were lots I did not know when writing the below or thought of as individual incidents as to Crusades: I knew the massacre of Jerusalem (Ist Crusade) and the sack of Constantinople (IVth), but not the generalised near colonial ambition in some areas, like Teutonic Order in the Baltic: even when writing this, I did not believe in Crusading against merely peaceful Moslems, unless they had oppressed or enslaved Christians. I have had two minds about Moslem Arabs in Palestine between the arrival of Moslem armies and the Seljuk takeover; on the one hand they were generally rather friendly to Christians, on the other there had been forced conversions to Islam, forbidding of conversions to Christianity, penalty taxing of non-Moslem "peoples of the book".

Envoyé : 16/09/2002 14:07
Message 10 of 10Subject:

Re: "RCC NOW & HANS' ERRORS"Msg # 67666

Date: 9/16/02 7:08:51 AM EDT

Author: H G Lundahl


I object to the title of this thread, and put it in inverted commas.

PhoenixCNA wrote:

[[Fellow Board members:I could no longer tolerate Hans' distortions and lies about the current teachings of the Holy RCC. He professes to be a RC. I say OK, but one of and on the lunatic fringe. He is the equivalent to a Christian Fundamentalist, but worse in my view for the damage he does to the image of his own Holy RCC.

Facts about Hans versus facts about the Holy Roman Catholic Church (RCC).

First Hans declares "If you understand him, it would not be God" (St. Augustine, Sermo 52, 6, 16: PL 38:360 and Sermo 117, 3, 5:PL 38, 663). ** (# 1 Ph 230) Zen Buddhist Masters: "If you say, you do not know. If you know ("enlightened") you do not (cannot) say." - Buddhism

This is no different than what I have known personally for years – that God is incomprehensible. Buddhism states it similarly – "enlightenment" is attained through "unknowing".]]

HOLD IT, Phoenix!

To a Catholic it is GOD who is incomprehensible, to a Buddhist it is reality "as a whole", all the truth there is, including created reality.HGL

[[St, John of the Cross, unlike the Zen masters, explains how to go into "unknowing" by the method of "dark contemplation". Thus one "allows" the Holy Spirit to enter the person's spirit and cleanse the soul to prepare it for "Ascent to Commune with God". A person in the state of mortal sin cannot be in commune with the perfect and divine God.]]

Agreed.

[[Hans claims we are always in commune with God.]]

I have never claimed ANY such thing. I HAVE however claimed we did not LOOSE communion by being created as individuals or by being born in the flesh, as the gnostics and manicheans claim. On the contrary I hold for certain that we are created without communion with God, but only by being created can fulfil the conditions of gaining it. Hence union with God is not reunion, except for those of us who have committed mortal sins: thus NOT for a newly baptised child, NOT at any time for Ste Terese of the Child Jesus and of the HOly Face, et c et c. Union with God is only accidentally, not essentially reunion.

[[He is in error because when we are in a state of sin we are essentially rejecting God and replacing God with the thing(s) and sin of this world – the thing(s) we place first ahead of God.]]

Correct - but make that a state of mortal sin, as venial sin does not constitute any state, just slacken the state of Grace.

[[To attain "complete" commune, one must be "perfectly free of all sin" and in total inordinate attachment to all things of the world. For anybody (even St. Thomas Aquinas – who also says we can know God by what He is not – is logical fallacy.) to then immediate make statements about God and how God works, or to know the mind and will of God is self-contradictory, false logic, arrogant and perhaps even blasphemous.]]

No: the Faith is the true faith, even if it is a dead faith, even if one is in a state of mortal sin. It is not by being in the state of Grace, but by believing what the Church teaches as revealed by God, that I make statements about the Blessed Trinity - or rather NOT make them but repeat them as made by others.

[[Secondly Hans states that the times before Martin Luther (the Dark Ages and The Crusades) were "great times", and that RCs that do not applaud the Inquisition are heretics and apostates. And, that Martin Luther was an Apostate heretic as well.]]

I do not demand applause for the Inquisition. But I do demand respect for it. Its motto was justitia et misericordia - with justice and mercy - and it lived up to it. The "worst" inquisitors were the Spanish, but even in Torquemada's time only a tenth of all the cases it tried were handed over to secular authorities for burning. After the Albigensian Crusade, the "sternest" Inquisitor was Raymond de Toulouse: he handed over one in nineteen to secular authorities for burning and the liberations from Inquisition prisons (c.100) alone are more numerous in his c. 900 judgements as an Inquisitor than the burnings (45 or 48 or something). Phoenix is more or less speaking as if the Inquisition were regularly run by the false judges condemning St Joan of Arc or the Knights Templar. Which is not the case. An example: St John Capistrano was inquisitor in Vienna and had Hussites burnt. Will Phoenix deny his sanctity?

[[The RCC is the nearest in reconciliation and ecumenical reunification with the Lutheran Church than any other church. In fact, the Holy RCC has essentially admitted it errors in the unfortunate Martin Luther affair, and is in the process of, or has essentially already completely "rehabilitated" Martin Luther and its stand against his "apostasy".]]

If that is the case it can no longer be the Roman CATHOLIC CHURCH. Pope Leo X did not err in condemning Luther, far from it. Nor was he hasty, rather he was prone to slackness and didn't act until Luther had already done great harm. Have you even read the horrible 95 theses?

[[Here is the position of the ... RCC regarding Islam and the Muslim faith, and other non-Christian religions.Page 185 – Ph. 841 "The Church’s relationship with the Muslims." "The plan of salvation also includes those who acknowledge the Creator, in the first place amongst whom are the Muslims; these profess to hold the faith of Abraham, and together with us they adore the one, merciful God, mankind’s judge on the last day." ** # 2]]

If this means they can be saved without becoming Catholics, this is heretical. If it means less, it suggests more than it means.

[[Ph. 842 " "The Church’s bond with non-Christian religions is in the first place the common origin and end of the human race:All nation form but one community. This is so because ....." ** # 3]]

Rather they form TWO communities: the City of God - Holy Catholic Church - and the City of Earth - meaning state, world, nation, et c. And that second city is divided since the tower of Babel and it is also divided into members belonging to the state of God and such that belong to the state of the Devil.

[[Ph 843 "The Catholic Church recognizes in other religions that search, among shadows and images, for the God who is unknown yet near since he gives life and breath and all things, and wants all men to be saved. Thus, the Church considers all goodness and truth found in these religions as "a preparation for the Gospel and given by him who enlightens all men that they may at length have life." " ** # 4]]

A preparation for the Gospel was certainly found in pre-Christian paganism - but in post-Christian paganism there is also a resitance AGAINST the Gospel.

[[Now why is it I already knew all these things without having studied the Catechism? Because I read about the other faiths and religions and concluded for myself, after "seeing" the similarities in beliefs that all were trying to seek my same God in their own way.]]

There is a difference between "trying to seek" and actually finding, isn't there? And if Mahomet perhaps actually sought for God, this doesn't make the majority of today's Mahometans seekers, as they are obliged to be since they haven't found the truth. But which we Catholics are forbidden to be, since we already have the truth.

Furthermore you cannot say a [Theravada] Buddhist seeks for God, since he is an atheist and since seeking for anything is what he tries and seeks to avoid.

[[Also that there were many, many similar truths and beliefs. Furthermore, God, being greater, wiser and more merciful than I, would surely love, understand and accept them even more readily than I have.]]

This presupposes that your delight and acceptance of them were really merciful: rather it is cruel to them, and to Christians and would-be-Christians that they oppress and force, as far as they can into apostasy, to be that sentimentally accepting of the false religions.

[[As for Hans’ delight in the wars and crusades against Islam, I offer the following: Avoiding War:Ph. 2307 "The fifth commandment forbids the intentional (the Crusades were intentional) destruction of human life." ** # 5]]

The V Commandment allows the killing of people who deserve it under three different conditions:

  • 1 Death Penalty
  • 2 Just War
  • 3 Just self-defense.

At least if only the defense is intentional and the killing unintentional. This restriction does not apply to just sentences of the state, including laws authorising even intentional killing in just self-defense, if the attack cannot be beaten back in any more merciful way.

[[Ph. 2309 "The strict conditions for legitimate defense by military force require rigorous consideration. The gravity of such a decision ...." ** # 6]]

The rigorous considerations have already been made by St Augustine and repeated by St Thomas Aquinas - and after half a millennium of Mahometan violence and oppression of Christianity, these considerations were amply met, when Pope Urban II said: God wills it.

[[** #1,: From Paragraph 230, Page 59, Catechism of the Catholic Church.** # 2, 3, & 4, Page 185, Catechism of the Catholic Church.** # 5 & 6, Page 471 and 472, Catechism of the Catholic Church.]]

This new Cathechism is not Catholic.

[[Applaud the Inquisition and the Crusades if you will evil one Hans.]]

Be against them if YOU will evil, Phoenix.

[[The RCC was in error then, and it admits it now with its New Catechism.]]

The Roman and Universal Catholic Church was right then, and whatever "admits" the opposite right now is not Catholic.

[[All war, except in clear self-defense is evil and in violation of natural and divine law.]]

So one has not the right to defend one's neighbour? Or the honour of God, the rights of his Church, the princes protecting it? Love god above all things is outdated to you? Love thy neighbour as thyself is outdated to you? WE FIGHT FOR THE LAW OF GOD AND FOR OUR SOULS (Maccabees) is outdated to you?

[[ Your idiotic, ancient, out-dated and distorted pronouncements on this subject are clearly outside of the RCC "current" teachings. It is you Hans who is the "APOSTATE" and heretic. By clutching onto the old and outdated RCC, you refuse to embrace the new divine truth of LOVE.

PhoenixCNA]]

I certainly do refuse to embrace any new "truths" purportedly revealed to the Church after the death of the last Apostle. One is not an apostate for refusing new doctrines but for rejecting old ones. The Pope himself has only got his powers as far as doctrine is concerned to defend and expound faithfully what has been handed down to him from his predecessors, not to add any novelties.

Hans Georg Lundahl

And the last Apostle, before dying, told Christians to love one another (see his Epistles).

...on Knowledge

I distinguish three things:

1 Ego scio - I know - means primarily I know this to be self-evident or at leastmediately demonstrable knowledge of my own reason or senses: I know that I sithere, I know that I am writing and what the words that I write mean, et c. "Iknow" means in this sense "I am making a statement, the truth of which I candemonstrate." At least to my own satisfaction. In this sense I know thatevolution is sham - and I think (see below) - I would retain that knowledge,even if I didn't believe the Genesis. On the other hand - knowing this, whatreason is there for not believing it?

2 It is also used in a broader sense to include certain belief in an authoritywhich is a true authority, an authority stating things as they are, not as theyare not: I know Magellan's ship has sailed around the world, I know that Lutherfaked translation passages in the Bible, I know that Mary Queen of Scots wasbeheaded after a sham trial by Usurpatrix Bess Bullen (or Boleyn, if youinsist), I know that Christ has risen, founded a Church, endowed it withinfallibility and - in the person of the New Testament writers - verbalinspiration, hence I know the eternal truths. In this sense the truths testifiedby God are of course more certain than those testified by mere men and deservethe epithet of knowledge more, not less.Knowing for certain by authority of someone else is also called ego credo - Ibelieve (in the old English sense of the word). This is especially used in thereligious sense, where I am not equal but infinitely inferior to the One whoknows by his own eternal wisdom and omniscience and on whose authority I believeit.

3 This must NOT be confused with ego opinor - I think, methinks. Unlike own knowing and belief giving access to God's, opining has no certainty.


Hans Georg Lundahl

Here are some battles between me and Voice of Principle [on] A and B on basic concept of knowledge by authority.

A I cannot verify it - this or that historical event, Resurrection of Christ or battle of Waterloo - but the original witnesses could.


====> The total body of evidence allows you to verify a great deal of it. The evidence of the witnesses is not a proclamation to be unconditionally accepted (they may be liars), but additional factual data to be integrated with thephysical and consequential evidence. <====


A witness may be a liar or mistaken. But there are certain things that go withbeing either and certain things that are inconsistent with either. A witness who is obviously not to be suspected of lying (no possible motive, even motives forthe opposite lie) or of being mistaken (his story shows he knows unless he islying) should be believed.


======> A person can be completely honest and as accurate in reporting as his world view permits, and still give a completely false account of the actual events. Imagine a nomad wandering in the Sinai 3000 years ago. He sees a bright object fall out of the sky and impact the earth, throwing up a great deal of matter and flame. Curiosity overcoming fear, he advances to investigate. As he approaches, he sees figures in strange garb moving about. Drawing nearer, he is shocked to see that they are wearing flexible metal garments with large glass headcoverings. Through the glass he sees that their skin is greenish in color and they have what look like horns on their heads. One of them turns toward him and he is blinded by an intense light that shines out from the creature's belt. He flees in terror. When he returns to his village he tells his friends and neighbors of the Hand of God casting out demons and banishing them from heaven. He tells of the horror of their visage and the great power of their hideous evil eye, which can rob a man of his sight. His observations are recorded in a holy book. Millenia later, in a more skeptical age, his account is used to describe the dangers of dehydration in desert environments. Had our wanderer given a scientific account, describing exactly what he had seen, without the religious overlay, his story might be interpreted as a possible first contact between human and extraterrestrial intelligence. A fable? Farfetched?

Consider: When Cortez lead a Spanish force in the exploration/conquest of Mexico, he brought about the collapse of the Aztec Empire. How could a few hundred Spaniards accomplish such a feat? The Aztecs psychologically defeated themselves. Terrifying accounts of the power of the newcomers were relayed to the Aztec king Montezuma. He was told that the visitors/invaders could destroy the tops of great mountains; kill thousands of warriors at a distance by means of great sorcery, etc. In the end, these tales unmanned Montezuma and he surrendered without a fight: because his "authorities" reported what they had seen as honestly as they could, but colored by their world view, which unfortunately for them contained no knowledge of explosives or gunpowder. The result: no more Aztec Empire. <======



That amounts in the one case to mistaken witness - not to be believed - on the other hand to lies - not to be believed either. Accepting authority means accepting both knowledge and honesty of the authority. What you are aiming at is called jurare in verba magistri - which is not allowed when the master inquestion is a mere human, whose conclusions I can criticise with my own reason.


Furthermore: are you actually a historian or an archeologist? If you are an historian, you will accept the authority of the archeologist on what he actually found - unless you were present at the excavation. If you are an archeologistyou may have a prejudice against the written sources that are authority for the historian, but you will accept his authority for what is in the written sources- unless you can read them yourself.


B So is believing a scientist about an experiment I cannot verify for myself:


like the Rutherford experiment or the experiments of Pasteur. Furthermore I do believe that the Copernican HYPOTHESIS as refined by Brahe and Kepler can make true predictions about planetary movements. I cannot verify it, but the scientists can.


====> The point is that scientific data can be verified and it is accepted on that basis: its verifiability. It is never to be accepted based solely on the position, stature, or reputation of the scientist. <====



Thank you for that point. Have any clear preponderance of evidence in favour of "Copernicanism" taken as a theory, a statement of the facts? Or are you believing heliocentrism on the reputation of its proponents?As to the actual Rutherford experiment, you are accepting it on the evidence ofthose who are in aposition to check it. On authority. Everyone who lacks the apparatus or skill for making the Rutherford experiment, accepts it on his/their authority. If you have never made the Rutherford experiment, you are accepting it on authority. Authority of one who made it once or fourscore who checked and double-checked by repeating the experiment: as long as YOU are not one of those who made the experiment, YOU are accepting it on the authority of those who did.Also it should not be accepted because it is verifiable, but only if it is in fact verifed: by yourself - or by someone whose AUTHORITY you believe. Either you admit to believing this on the authority of Rutherford et al. or you claim to have made the experiment yourself or you are admitting you know nothing about it or you are talking bosh. Quintum non datur.


======> To repeat, the evidence is accepted:

A) because it is subject to verification,


and B) because it has been verified so many, many times by a veritable army of researchers, scholars, and scientists (experiments are conducted repeatedly precisely to build this level of confidence, eliminating any reasonable probability of misinterpretation, error, or deliberate deceit).


For it to be in error given this degree of confirmation would imply a conspiracy so gigantic as to strain human imagination. It is emphatically not accepted because Professor Exalted proclaimed it to be true. To summarize, a factual claim is accepted to be true if it is either self-evidently true, or the preponderance of the evidence suggests (to a very high probability) that it is true. In the latter case, it is not accepted on anyone's authority, but on many sources of evidence, including repeated experiments performed by many different individuals and groups. It is the variety of data, the repetition of the experiments, and the independence (even rivalry) of the experimenters, and not an assertion based on authority, that create the foundation for believing the truth of a particular hypothesis has been confirmed. <======



But these things: "many sources of evidence, including repeated experimentsperformed by many different individuals and groups" YOU know only by AUTHORITYof these many men (the authority of one being insufficient for you) who have said they made the experiment. You very well put the case WHY their authority is to be believed, but that does not alter the fact that anyone who has NOT made it himself, is accepting it ON AUTHORITY of those who have. Are you a scientist? If you are a scientist, you must accept the authority ofother scientists for any experiment result, any measure taken, that you do notintend to check yourself. Life is to short for any man making all theexperiments of modern science himself. He must rely on authority of others forsome of them. If you made the Rutherford experiment, you haven't made a thoroughcheck on astronomics. If you made either, chances are your biochemistry is all on authority and so on. And if you are a natural scientist, you are NOT the person checking the evidenceabout King Arthur or Battle of Waterloo (except perhaps some parts of the archeological evidence). Or if you are an historian, the scientific evidence is accessible to you only on authority of those who have checked it. I have actually caught you believing authority (alas, bad authority, which you should have checked!) on the relation between modern maths and logic. It is authoritywhich tells you modern maths have a valid concept that could not be reached by logic. Check it: if it cannot be reached by logic, how do you know it is valid?


Hans Georg Lundahl

C And in precisely this category I place ALSO (D, E, F, et c):



======> Something is either true or it is not. Truth must be demonstrated, not defined. The fact that you might want something to be true does not make it so.<======

That is insolent! I was asked to DEFINE knowledge on this thread, and definitions are further clarified by giving EXAMPLES. I am willing to demonstrate this as true authority granted that second hand knowledge or knowledge by authority is accepted. But that was not what I was doing. I was giving an example of my definition of knowledge on someone else's authority, not proving it to be a good example. That belongs really to another thread, if youwill go on about it. Here I am discussing whether you can have knowledge without authority.

D the human evidence of the Apostles in seeing the Resurrected Christ including the circumstances proving* it not a sham

====> You have just switched from scientific evidence which is subject to complete and repeated verification to religious dogma for which no verification is possible. You are not so much comparing apples and oranges as you are apples and orangutans. Moreover...In our time, whenever a particularly sensationly murder or series of murders occur, the police brace themselves for a deluge of pseudo confessors: people who had nothing whatsoever to do with the crime, but who nonetheless proclaim their own guilt. Such testimony, without further tangible proof linking these selfadmitted culprits to the crime is considered worthless, as it should be here. A group of individuals declaring that they all saw a certain man in a certain town on a certain day provides a tentative degree of evidence to establish that such and such a person was there. It in no sense provides any degree of evidence for supernatural events operating in violation of the known physical laws of nature.<====

I was not referring to the dogma confirmed by the Apostles' witness, though that dogma and that witness are preserved together, in the Catholic Church, I am referring to the witness: what they saw with their eyes, heard with their ears,felt with their fingertips (when S:t Thomas touched the Wounds) tasted (when they fried and ate the fish Christ gave them to catch) et c. It was certainly verifiable to them.

======> Such testimony is credible only with additional objective evidence confirming that the events described actually occurred. All of these claims are presented to us by a small number of individuals who (assuming they did in fact exist and are not merely characters in a fable) were hardly disinterested observers given their claim to have been participants in a series of extraordinary, indeed, supernatural events. <======

Small number of individuals? No. 500 men seeing Christ risen on one occasion is probably more than the men who made the Rutherford experiment - unless laboratories are wasting a lot of tax money!

Not disinterested observers is not an absolute requirement for thetrustworthiness of a witness. They were given a great interest in retracting the evidence, because they were tortured (St. John the Apostle) or actually killed (all other holy Apostles) for not retracting it. Furthermore lots of people who converted were in fact disinterested witnesses to the miracles they converted for: like physician St. Luke diagnosing death by broken neck and watching St.Paul resurrect him.* A parallell to your: "In addition to written accounts, there is abundantphysical evidence in the form of graves, expended munitions, discarded weapons,etc. By my standard, the combination of physical evidence, the changes in thepolitical/military/cultural balances in Europe (Napoleon was comprehensivelydefeated, France ceased to be the preeminent military power, hence subsequentevents unfolded under new constraints), and the primary accounts from manydifferent sources all produce an unavoidable conclusion that the aforementionedbattle occurred. I accept this body of information as evidence because it islogically coherent and mutually consistent."

E the human evidence of other authentic miracles (I do not generally reject human evidence on non-genuine, rather I accept it as evidence of diabolical pseudo-miracle)

====> There is to my knowledge no evidence of miracles, divine or diabolical, which would pass even a minimal test of plausibility, much less the far more rigorous proof any reasonable human being would insist on to validate such truly extraordinary claims. <====

Your minimal tests of plausibility work both ways, unless they are faulty. Even if it were implausible that Christ rose or that a sudden healing of an organic disease involving destroyed tissues occurred in Lourdes - and what do you, anagnostic, know about plausibility - it is still less plausible to deny it. Considering the facts, it is impossible, except by denying the facts, i e by lying.

======> You ask rhetorically: "what do you, an agnostic, know about plausibility", by which I asssume you mean that as an agnostic I am less gullible than others. Your assertion that although something is implausible, it is more implausible to deny it is bizarre. One denies the implausible precisely because it is implausible: it is folly to assert that something is highly unlikely to have occurred and then conclude it must have occurred. <======

Aha! Misrepresenting my argument!

I wrote: "Even if it were implausible that Christ rose or that a sudden healing of an organic disease involving destroyedtissues occurred in Lourdes - and what do you, an agnostic, know about plausibility - it is still less plausible to deny it."

"Even if implausible to accept, still less implausible to deny" does not mean the same thing as"Implausible to accept and therefore still less implausible to deny" which you are putting in "my mouth!" You are referring to Credo quia absurdum, which I was not paraphrasing, and does not mean quite what you say either.

F the evidence of Christ that he is God once the Resurrection proves he is neither a madman nor a scoundrel - since God would not resurrect either.

====> No independent evidence of any supernatural event, just an interesting story, not unlike The Lord of Rings, in which all of the central "witnesses" are in fact characters in the story. <====

Tolkien has not become a martyr to deny he made LOTR up. The Apostles were rather martyrs than admitting to have made it up - which would be involved in denying their tenets.

======> If the men and supernatural beings you describe are nothing more than characters in a fable, what then? <======

They aren't characters in fables. See new point on H.

G the evidence of this God and man about Church, about God and our eternal destiny

====> These are assumptions, not evidence. <====

Assumptions no. Evidence yes, considering the above evidence, which in vain you have slurred on.

======> You have offered many assumptions, but no evidence (and hence I have not slurred on it). If I missed the evidence do itemize it here. <======

Itemised: D, E, and F. As above. You have attacked each point in vain, I have defended them.

H the evidence of this Church on what he said - it includes already the human evidence of the Apostles, but through the authority of God transcends this to be the Voice of God. (I separate attacks i and ii)

i ====> Assumptions built on assumptions, but no actual evidence. <====

The evidence of this Church on what he said is historical authority as well as divine. If you belive George Allen and Unwin when reproducing what JRRT wrote -as fiction - how come you do not accept the evidence of the Church as to what Christ actually said - as doctrine? The authority questions involved in the human evidence are not all that different.

======> Tolkien wrote fiction based on Christian religious concepts (you consider them to be true, I consider them to be a mix of non-supernatural fact and fiction). Other authors have written fiction based on Tolkien's mythology. Should I therefore now consider Tolkien's work to be a true account of actual events? <======

He wrote fiction based on historical events. To accept the Restoration of the Imperial dignity in the West by Pope crowning Charlemagne has nothing to do with accepting the coronation of Aragorn, which is based on it. To accept the swamping of rural culture by officials as a modern and deplorable fact has nothing to do with accepting The Scouring of the Shire (with a happy end we haven't seen yet) as historical fact. You are comparing apples and oranges.

NEW: I believe George Allen and Unwin as to what Tolkien actually wrote. Did Tolkien write the chapter The Tower of Cirith Ungol? George Allen and Unwin are my authority he did so. Did Tolkien write fiction or literally true stories? George Allen and Unwin tell me at least implicitly he wrote fiction. In the same manner I believe the Church as to what Christ actually said and did. Both Bible and oral tradition. And that the narrative is of literally true events rather than fiction. Not JUST because the Church is divine, but even on its human authority it would need some motivation to doubt its testimony on its own beginning. The mere possibility is not motive enough. Moreover, it claims so much on human nature, it would not have been humanly possible to convert men of virtually all nations without proving its divine authority by further miracles.

ii ======> Actually, not so much assumptions as free roaming mysticism: the sort that proclaims a mystical truth: that is, an imaginary "truth" that is defined to be true by virtue of its initial assertion ("I declare this to be true,therefore it is true, therefore I can declare it to be true"). <======


You have obviously NOT read the evidence as itemised above. Your discourteouss tatements are not even pure guesses, they are guesses in the teeth of evidence.

J In all these matters, I personally cannot verify, but God can verify and the witnesses to his revelation, including the obviously genuine miracles proving it to be divine, can verify that he has verified.

====> The existence of God is an assumption. Offering it as proof of other assumptions is like building a skyscraper on a foundation of sand. <====

I am not offering God's existence as proof. I am claiming God's testimony is proof. This is only possible if he exists, and yet i have NOT to assume his existence to PROVE his testimony, ONLY to EXPLAIN it. See further Logics thread.

Original message.


======> Very cute, but you do have to assume His existence in order to assume His testimony is in fact His. You cannot offer testimony from someone whose very existence is problematical: if your conjectural being does not in fact exist, then what is the source of His purported testimony? <======

I have to assume it as the causal explanation of the testimony that is well established and proven without first assuming this cause. See above. If you think proving and causally explaining are the same operation and would make a circle, you need to refresh your logics - see thread. I refer to the admission by Voice Of Principle on knowledge thread, that I put to my new logics thread as well. Point 5, on manifesting one's existence. For the benefit of zoombwaz I repeated it there.
*St Luke obviously watched St Paul resuscitate the boy who had fallen from the window.