Tuesday, March 6, 2018

... on Whether Geocentrism is Obliging? Debate with Anthony Zarrella


Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere : ... on Galileo and the Church (quora) · ... on Whether Geocentrism is Obliging? Debate with Anthony Zarrella · With Zarrella et al. on Geocentrism · Correspondence of Hans Georg Lundahl : With Anthony Zarrella on Metaphysics of Science

Q
Did the Pope just denounce Creationism? Isn’t accepting evolution equivalent to rejecting creationism? By creationism, I mean the idea that the world is 6000 years old.
https://www.quora.com/Did-the-Pope-just-denounce-Creationism-Isn%E2%80%99t-accepting-evolution-equivalent-to-rejecting-creationism-By-creationism-I-mean-the-idea-that-the-world-is-6000-years-old/answer/Alec-Cawley


Context link
Pope Francis declares evolution and Big Bang theory are real and God is not 'a magician with a magic wand'
Independent | Adam Withnall | Tuesday 28 October 2014 09:43 GMT
http://www.independent.co.uk/news/world/europe/pope-francis-declares-evolution-and-big-bang-theory-are-right-and-god-isnt-a-magician-with-a-magic-9822514.html


Hans-Georg Lundahl
Just now
As to header in Independent : “Francis goes against Benedict XVI’s apparent support for 'intelligent design' - but does hail his predecessor’s 'great contribution to theology'”

Where exactly does “Francis” go against Intelligent Design?

It is not synonymous to and does not strictly of itself imply Young Earth Creationism, though they can be combined.

Ratzinger or “Benedict” was also no Young Earth Creationist, as seen by a document from 1993 or 1994. While he was a “cardinal”.

Quora Question Details Bot
Aug 8, 2017
Isn’t accepting evolution equivalent to rejecting creationism? And by creationism I mean the idea that the world is 6000 years old. I honestly have no idea what current Catholic thinking is.

[same link]

Paul Reid
Nov 19
The Catholic Church never held to Creationist ideas at any point in it's 1500 or so years. Creationism is a recent invention, by Protestants in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Just now
That is false.

An Answer:

Alec Cawley
Wessex man and European
Answered Mar 26, 2017
Generally speaking, the Catholic Church has not taken a position on scientific matters. The one exception was when Galileo deliberately goaded his one-time friend, who had become Pope, into a dogmatic position against the Copernical model of the universe. One of the problems with claiming to be an absolute authority is that it is very hard to back down once you have taken a position. So, having once taken that position, it took a very long time before the Church could admit it was wrong.

However, the Catholic Church has never taken such a forceful position on the Creation. It generally kept quiet while watching to see how the science developed. It implicitly accepted evolution in some form a long time ago. It explicitly accepted it, stating that evolution was the mechanism by which God had wrought his creation (you would have to check for the exact phrasing) about the middle of the 20th century.

The controversy about the heliocentric model was a blot on an otherwise fairly tolerant landscape, driven essentially by Galileo being an assertive and egotistic braggart, even if he was (fairly) right.

Anthony Zarrella
Apr 14, 2017
2 upvotes
“The one exception was when Galileo deliberately goaded his one-time friend, who had become Pope, into a dogmatic position against the Copernical model of the universe. One of the problems with claiming to be an absolute authority is that it is very hard to back down once you have taken a position.”

Actually, the Pope emphatically did not make any dogmatic pronouncement of the kind.

He made a judicial declaration that Galileo was not permitted to promote heliocentrism.

If he had actually dogmatically defined heliocentrism as false, then that dogma would be unchangeable (and would have led to a truly massive crisis of faith for Catholics when heliocentrism was actually proven). The Church would be nothing but a fringe cult by modern times, had that been the case.

This is merely a technical correction though - most of your answer is quite right.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Mon
I would not consider you correct.

Urban VIII personally only did what you said, up to sentence, but then he sent the sentence to all the Catholic world - making it his, and involving the Church in condemnation of “the sun is immobile centre of the universe” (formally heretical) and “earth is moving around sun and also in a daily motion” (at least erroneous).

You maybe should buy from Pope Michael his reedition of nine papal decisions against Heliocentrism.

Anthony Zarrella
23h ago
“Urban VIII personally only did what you said, up to sentence, but then he sent the sentence to all the Catholic world”

Yes, as a judicial sentence, not as an infallible dogmatic decree.

“involving the Church in condemnation of “the sun is immobile centre of the universe” (formally heretical) and “earth is moving around sun and also in a daily motion” (at least erroneous).”

Remember, he only prohibited Galileo from teaching those propositions as settled truth—he did not prohibit him from discussing them as theory.

Does that sound like what a pope would do with formal heresy?

Moreover, infallibility, per Vatican I, applies only to matters of faith and morals. Scientific empirical facts are neither.

We don’t proclaim, “I believe in one God, the Father Almighty, maker of Heaven and Earth… and that the Earth is the center of the universe…” It’s not a dogma of faith, and has never been taught as such.

“You maybe should buy from Pope Michael his reedition of nine papal decisions against Heliocentrism.”

Sorry, but again, I view David Bawden as a formal schismatic at least, and possibly a material or formal heretic. I trust his imprimatur no more than I would that of Bishop Donatus Magnus.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
23h ago
"Yes, as a judicial sentence, not as an infallible dogmatic decree."

When does a judicial sentence become that?

  • 1) It needs to involve the Pope

  • 2) It needs to imply the Catholic world

  • 3) It needs to be on faith or morals (for Pope to decide)


It did involve Pope Urban VIII, it was sent to the Catholic world, and it was about both exegetics and philosophy and therefore about the faith.

"Sorry, but again, I view David Bawden as a formal schismatic at least, and possibly a material or formal heretic. I trust his imprimatur no more than I would that of Bishop Donatus Magnus."

It is not by his imprimatur, he is reediting older books. Which already have imprimatur or imprimi potest from pre-Vatican II authorities. Note, I asked him about one book which had a post-Vatican II imprimatur and have so far no response to the dubia. Do you think imprimaturs expire even without direct revocation and putting on index?

"Remember, he only prohibited Galileo from teaching those propositions as settled truth—he did not prohibit him from discussing them as theory."

No longer true by end of 1633.

"Does that sound like what a pope would do with formal heresy?"

The actual distinction is between mathematical hypothesis and theory of fact.

If Galileo wanted (as per previous discussions) treat it as about a mathematical model making counting orbits easier but with no relevance to facts, Galileo had at one time been free to do so. At one time, no longer by end of 1633. It's like I don't believe in "i", but am fine with using it for computer modelling when formulas have "dimensions".

But if Galileo was so involved with Heliocentrism as a fact that he was willing to adapt exegesis to it - that was the rub.

"Moreover, infallibility, per Vatican I, applies only to matters of faith and morals. Scientific empirical facts are neither."

Is God existing a matter of faith and morals? Did Vatican I say that God can be deduced from empirical facts? Yes and yes. Therefore, sth being "empirical fact" has no bearing to make it immune from Papal infallibility.

Moreover, Heliocentrism is to this very day not verified as empirical fact. It is not on par with "grass is green" and hardly even on spectral theory of colours.

"We don’t proclaim, “I believe in one God, the Father Almighty, maker of Heaven and Earth… and that the Earth is the center of the universe…”"

We also don't proclaim "... who ascended to the Father, assumed His Blessed Mother there, who is there Queen with His Kingship, and who thence shall return to judge the living and the dead" - and yet, Assumption is either dogma or fidei proxima (I seem to have cleared Pacelli from a doubt on that encyclical which didn't concern the main point).

There are lots of dogmata that are less solemn than the articles of the faith and yet are necessary to propose once the other alternative has been proven to lead to damnable errors, like Heliocentrism and Acentrism did with Giordano Bruno.

Anthony Zarrella
23h ago
1 upvote from Hans-Georg Lundahl
Without getting into a rehash of the entire geocentrist debate, I’ll just point out a few things:

  • 1) Infallibility does not merely need to “involve the pope” and “imply the Catholic world”—he must propose something as a doctrine to be definitively held by all the faithful. Popes of that era knew quite well how to anathematize heresies—so I feel confident that if heliocentrism had been intended to be so anathematized… well, Pope Urban VIII could have very easily just said, “Anathema sit.”

  • 2) God’s existence can be derived from empirical facts, but is not itself an empirical fact (in the sense that I’m speaking of—i.e., God cannot be measured and tested by instruments and experimentation, nor can He be directly observed with the senses [a few special prophetic instances notwithstanding]).

  • 3) A re-edit of a text requires a new imprimatur (or perhaps it’s a nihil obstat—I admit I get the two confused sometimes), because the editing process can introduce error. Regardless, my point was that I would go to a source other than Bawden, if I wished to read historical papal proclamations.

  • 4) Heliocentrism is verified to as great an extent as could practically be wished. We’ve sent people into outer space who have directly observed the Earth’s rotation and the orbits of the planets, and we’ve launched unmanned instrumentation that has given even clearer data. Either heliocentrism is verified or there is a vast conspiracy, consisting of hundreds of thousands of scientists, dedicated to pretending that it is (and you know how I feel about conspiracy theories).

  • 5) Giordano Bruno was condemned primarily on the basis of Christological heresies and possible pantheism. The fact that he also rejected geocentrism has no clear connection to that.

  • 6) My point regarding the Creed was not that only those truths contained in the Creed are doctrinal. But geocentrism simply has never been taught in the same way as those doctrines. It’s not even in the pre-Vatican II Catechisms, unless I’m greatly mistaken.


Hans-Georg Lundahl
3h ago
"Popes of that era knew quite well how to anathematize heresies—so I feel confident that if heliocentrism had been intended to be so anathematized… well, Pope Urban VIII could have very easily just said, 'Anathema sit.'"

On your view, condemnation of errors of Berengarius of Tours was not yet infallible?

It is I think in Denzinger.

"God’s existence can be derived from empirical facts, but is not itself an empirical fact (in the sense that I’m speaking of—i.e., God cannot be measured and tested by instruments and experimentation, nor can He be directly observed with the senses [a few special prophetic instances notwithstanding])."

Heliocentrism is not an empiric fact. I do not believe it can be derived from them, and it certainly is not in itself.

Accept Geocentrism as an empiric fact, that is ONE from which you can derive the existence of God, it is basically Prima Via, with a physically different version in Abraham's argument according to Josephus Antiquities.

"A re-edit of a text requires a new imprimatur (or perhaps it’s a nihil obstat—I admit I get the two confused sometimes), because the editing process can introduce error."

Not if it simply reprints text as such.

Also, under new canon law, imprimatur is not strictly required, is it?

"Regardless, my point was that I would go to a source other than Bawden, if I wished to read historical papal proclamations."

Very mistrusting. If it weren't part of a psychiatric superstition, I would from popular usage consider that attitude "paranoid." Note, once again, popular sense, not DSMH sense.

"We’ve sent people into outer space who have directly observed the Earth’s rotation"

We directly observe the universe rotating around us. 7 billion pairs of eyes trump a few cameras and a few astronauts.

In other words, the argument is as good as "I flew around a tower in a chopper, and the tower was turning around its axis, I observed that". In Geocentrism, the men on the Moon (if any) were in a situation definitely comparable to the chopper.

Your explanation for why 7 billion pairs of eyes can be discounted works exactly other way round for why a few pairs of eyes can be so.

It would be God's providence which of the views is the more common one.

" and the orbits of the planets"

You have heard of Tycho Brahe? Galileo's first judge, Cardinal Bellarmine, had.

"Either heliocentrism is verified or there is a vast conspiracy, consisting of hundreds of thousands of scientists, dedicated to pretending that it is (and you know how I feel about conspiracy theories)."

Some conspiracies are easier than others, like a vast conspiracy to ignore Geocentric arguments, or to ignore Tycho Brahe, because arguing with Dichotomy between Ptolemy and Modern Science is easier.

So, that kind of vast conspiracy is as easy as Martin Luther launching one, which lasts to this day.

"The fact that he also rejected geocentrism has no clear connection to that."

It has if you study the philosophy of Prima Via.

"But geocentrism simply has never been taught in the same way as those doctrines. It’s not even in the pre-Vatican II Catechisms, unless I’m greatly mistaken."

Will have a look at the Trentine one.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Just now
I did look on Catechism of Trent, here is from First Article:

4 The words " heaven" and " earth" include all things which the heavens and the earth contain ; for, besides the heavens, which the Prophet called " the work of his fingers," 5 he also gave to the sun its brilliancy, and to the moon and stars their beauty : and that they may be " for signs and for seasons, for days and for years," 8 he so ordered the celestial bodies in a certain and uniform course, that nothing varies more their continual revolution, yet nothing more fixed than that variety.

By Celestial bodies, Earth is not meant.

Edit - here is more:

The earth, also, God commanded to stand in the midst of the world, rooted in its own foundation, and " made the mountains to ascend, and the plains to descend into the place which he had founded for them." That the waters should not inundate the earth, " he hath set a bound which they shall not pass over, neither shall they return to cover the earth." 6 He next not only clothed and adorned it with trees, and every variety of herb and flower, but filled it, as he had already filled the air and water, with innumerable sorts of living creatures.

Lastly, he formed man from the slime of the earth, immortal and impassable, not, however, by the strength of nature, but by the bounty of God. His soul he created to his own image and likeness ; gifted him with free will, and tempered all his motions and appetites, so as to subject them, at all times, to the dictate of reason. He then added the invaluable gift of original righteousness, and next gave him dominion over all other animals By referring to the sacred history of Genesis the pastor will make him self familiar with these things for the instruction of the faithful.

... on Mark of the Beast, Giants, and the Eucharist (dialogues lead to diversions)


Antichrist Will Be The Genetic Son of Satan (& How the Mark of the Beast Damns You) - Douglas Hamp
Veruka psalm40verse2 | Added 2 Sept. 2017
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qwCB_eSIJaA


I
Hans-Georg Lundahl
What do you think happens to someone who had animal DNA added without his normal awake consent (in sleep, under hypnosis etc)?

Veruka psalm40verse2
I personally think all humanity is corrupted in their DNA, because of toxins we take in from our polluted environment, GMO foods, vaccines, x-ray damage, etc. I believe God can heal all this when a person gives their heart and life to Jesus Christ. Re: animal DNA being added: I don't know if there is a "saturation point", so to speak, where the DNA becomes so corrupted that the person isn't considered Human any more, EXCEPT for the Mark of the Beast itself (which will may contain Satanic DNA). You take that Mark and you are no longer eligible for salvation, PERIOD. But you ask a very interesting question. You should ask this of Doug Hamp or Jacob Prasch - I'd be interested in their answer!

Hans-Georg Lundahl
You have closer contact to them than I have.

As for DNA becoming simply dysfunctional by toxins and so, that is not "corrupted" seed in the relevant sense, since it was perhaps even God's own method for shortening lifespans between Flood and Babel and beyond : at least higher radioactivity (explaining the C14 rise in atmosphere, since on my tables it needs a faster C14 production than the one we have today) would have shortened telomeres and hastened the moment at which two many cells have too many mutations on chromosomes lacking their telomeres. It would also have involved a certain amount of mutations happening. Perhaps blonde and blue eyes is from then, while white skin could be that but also could be Neanderthal heritage: if one of the daughters in law of Noah had part Neanderthal heritage (but not on a complete maternal line, her mitochondrial DNA would be as Sethite as the one we have today).

Saturation point is a good point ... though as a Catholic I object to the wording "considered" as in "that the person isn't considered Human any more" - because as with sin and justice, our state is not just how we are "considered" but actual facts in us. Also, it would rather be a case of losing use of freewill than of not being a human person - losing freewill would imply no longer functioning as an adult human person, but you would still be a human person.

Veruka psalm40verse2
Interesting points, and absolutely fascinating things to consider. Thank you for sharing this. :)

II
Hans-Georg Lundahl
Seeing that Neanderthals are a pre-Flood race, see Pääbo, who stated the Y-chromosome and mitochindrial DNA don't exist any more (even if other Neanderthal identic genes discern some people from others, red head, perhaps white skin, diabetes (type II?), bipolar ...) do you think Neanderthals were image of the beast, or do you think they were just any other pre-Flood race?

Neanderthals have been found with signs of cannibalism and not always just as victims, Neanderthals in Belgium ate woolly rhino - and men, according to DNA from their tooth enamel. B u t those in Spain - there have been found traces of cannibalism, but tooth enamel says vegetarian (like pre-Flood men were supposed to be). Pine nuts, among other things. Other article.

Oh, by the way, they certainly were human rather than straight off animal, since they do have the human version of FOXP2 gene, vital to human speech (a family with even one mutation on it could not speak). CMI has one article with this info and obviously gives a reference ...

https://creation.com/images/pdfs/tj/j22_2/j22_2_13-14.pdf

I found a few references, and think this one is the relevant one:

Enard W., Przeworski, M., Fisher, S.E., Lai, C.S., Wiebe, V., Kitano, T., Monaco, A.P. and Pääbo, S., Molecular evolution of FOXP2, a gene involved in speech and language, Nature 418:869–872, 2002.

Veruka psalm40verse2
I've seen researchers point out that "Neanderthals" weren't pre-human in any way, but were actually REALLY OLD HUMANS who were pre-flood. They grew gigantic brow ridges because they were so old and because the brow ridge never stops growing, apparently. Also these people had incredibly strong skeletons. They were superior to us. Sounds like pre-flood humanity to me, back when the entire ecosystem was different and people could live to be a thousand years old.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
First of all, we have Cro-Magnon (Sethites, or genetically very close) who lived in their time, as per identical carbon dates (which are inflated but give probably a relative sequence), second, we have them also documented as parents or ancestors of an offspring which is genetically half Neanderthal and half Cro-Magnon, that is half Sethite.

And, third, not least, Pääbo has analysed their DNA. Some of it is no longer there and some of it is in some men but not others.

The gigantic eyes would have looked like certain Sumerians, and it seems the contemporary Cro-Magnon did not have as thick bones. I think we might deal either with a genetic deviation or with a process of "adding brawn and subtracting brain" like Soviet and later Russian élite sportsmen, as well as East German ones.

Such a process could be pushed so far that one lost the adult use of freewill.

Veruka psalm40verse2
I have encountered believers who are adamant that once a person takes the Mark, they actually LOSE their free will and become enslaved to the demonic Hive mind. I tend to agree with this perspective.

Most certainly, Satan has messed with human DNA in the past (Genesis 6) and he appears to be doing so again.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"I have encountered believers who are adamant that once a person takes the Mark, they actually LOSE their free will and become enslaved to the demonic Hive mind."

I could envisage losing use of free will.

That would certainly be one way in which the mark would finally damn one, and much closer to Classical Thomism than ceasing to be a human person.

Rosemary Kennedy did not become sth other than a human person, just a very stunted one, by lobotomy.

III
Hans-Georg Lundahl
18:38 You realise you do have God's seed in you if you receive a valid communion?
Veruka psalm40verse2
Yes, a true believing Christian has God's seed in them.
Hans-Georg Lundahl
Meaning, as in valid communion, not just any believer in a broad sense, but where the priest has correctly consecrated bread and wine to the flesh and blood of the "seed of the woman".
Veruka psalm40verse2
Thank you for your comments Hans-Georg. :) With respect sir...Jesus does not appear in bread and wine. Jesus has been resurrected and gone to the Father; He does not come back until that Day when He returns to earth in bodily form. You will not find a Biblical teaching that tells you that the bread and wine we celebrate actually turns into Jesus' physical blood and flesh. The Apostles outlawed the consumption of blood in Acts 15:20. Throughout the Old Testament as well, believers are commanded to abstain from drinking blood. God cannot go against His Word. He would not command one thing and then do the opposite or expect us to go against His commandment. True salvation, and communion with Him, comes from belief in Jesus: "because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one believes and is justified, and with the mouth one confesses and is saved." (Romans 10:9-10)
And;
" 23 Jesus answered him, “If anyone loves me, he will keep my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him." (John 14:23)

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"You will not find a Biblical teaching that tells you that the bread and wine we celebrate actually turns into Jesus' physical blood and flesh."

John 6.

"The Apostles outlawed the consumption of blood in Acts __15:20__."

When Christ confirms His teaching by the special miracle of visibly turning the wine to His blood, drinking is indeed forbidden.

"Jesus has been resurrected and gone to the Father; He does not come back until that Day when He returns to earth in bodily form."

Nevertheless, His body has a hologrammatic presence, if you like to put it that way, in each validly consecrated host and chalice.

He also promised "I am with you every day" Matthew 28:20.

“If anyone loves me, he will keep my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him." (John __14:23__)

One of the words were "do this in remembrance of me" and "he that eateth not my flesh has no life".

Veruka psalm40verse2
The following excerpt from a Got Questions article explains this better than I can...please allow me to share it. And forgive me for the length! But I hope you read it, sir.

[excerpt:]
"The Roman Catholic Church believes that the bread and wine of the Holy Eucharist become the actual body and blood of Jesus. They attempt to support their system of thought with passages such as John 6:32-58; Matthew 26:26; Luke 22:17-23; and 1 Corinthians 11:24-25.

In A.D. 1551, the Counsel of Trent officially stated, "By the consecration of the bread and wine there takes place a change of the whole substance of the bread into the substance of the body of Christ our Lord and of the whole substance of the wine into the substance of his blood. This change the holy Catholic Church has fittingly and properly called transubstantiation" (Session XIII, chapter IV; cf. canon II). By sharing in the Eucharistic meal, the Church teaches that Catholics are fulfilling John 6:53: "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you."

What does that really mean? Jesus goes on to say that "it is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is of no avail. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life" (John 6:63-64). So, if "the flesh is of no avail," why would we have to eat Jesus' flesh in order to have eternal life? It does not make sense, until Jesus tells us that the words He speaks are "spirit." Jesus is saying that this is not a literal teaching, but a spiritual one. The language ties in perfectly with the aforementioned statement of the apostle Paul: "Present your bodies as a living sacrifice, holy and acceptable to God, which is your spiritual worship" (Romans 12:1).

In Jewish thought, bread was equated with the Torah, and "eating of it" was reading and understanding the covenant of God (cf. Deuteronomy 8:3). For example, the apocryphal book of Sirach states, "'He who eats of me will hunger still, he who drinks of me will thirst for more; he who obeys me will not be put to shame, he who serves me will never fail.' All this is true of the book of Most High's covenant, the law which Moses commanded us as an inheritance for the community of Jacob" (Sirach 24:20-22). Quoting from Sirach here is not endorsing it as Scripture; it only serves to illustrate how the Jewish people thought of Mosaic Law. It is important to understand the equating of bread with the Torah to appreciate Jesus' real point.

In John 6, Jesus is actually telling the crowd that He is superior to the Torah (cf. John 6:49-51) and the entire Mosaic system of Law. The passage from Sirach states that those who eat of the Law will "hunger still" and "thirst for more"; this language is mirrored by Jesus when He says, "He who comes to Me will never be hungry, he who believes in Me will never be thirsty" (John 6:35). Jesus is not commanding people to literally eat His flesh and drink His blood, He is telling them the core of all Christian doctrine: belief in Jesus Himself ("The work of God is this: to believe in the One He has sent," John 6:29, emphasis added). Therefore, the Catholic interpretation of John 6 is unbiblical.

Second, there is a very clear analogy in John 6 to the days of Moses and the eating of manna. In the days of Moses, manna was God’s provision for food for the Israelites as they wandered in the wilderness. In John 6, however, Jesus claimed to be the true manna, the bread of heaven. With this statement Jesus claimed to be God’s full provision for salvation. Manna was God’s provision of deliverance from starvation. Jesus is God’s provision of deliverance from damnation. Just as the manna had to be consumed to preserve the lives of the Israelites, so Jesus has to be consumed (fully received by faith) for salvation to be received.

It is very clear that Jesus referred to Himself as the Bread of Life and encouraged His followers to eat of His flesh in John 6. But we do not need to conclude that Jesus was teaching what the Catholics have referred to as transubstantiation. The Lord’s Supper / Christian communion / Holy Eucharist had not been instituted yet. Jesus did not institute the Holy Eucharist / Mass / Lord's Supper until John chapter 13. Therefore, to read the Lord’s Supper into John 6 is unwarranted. As suggested above, it is best to understand this passage in light of coming to Jesus, in faith, for salvation. When we receive Him as Savior, placing our full trust in Him, we are “consuming His flesh” and “drinking His blood.” His body was broken (at His death) and His blood was shed to provide for our salvation. 1 Corinthians 11:26, “For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord's death until He comes.”

Whether the Catholic definition of Holy Eucharist is a "re-sacrifice" of Christ, or a "re-offering" of Christ's sacrifice, or a “re-presentation” of Christ’s sacrifice, the concept is unbiblical. Christ does not need to be re-sacrificed. Christ's sacrifice does not need to be re-offered or re-presented. Hebrews 7:27 declares, "Unlike the other high priests, He (Jesus) does not need to offer sacrifices day after day, first for his own sins, and then for the sins of the people. He sacrificed for their sins ONCE for all when He offered Himself." Similarly, 1 Peter 3:18 exclaims, "For Christ died for sins ONCE for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God..." Christ's once-for-all death on the cross was sufficient to atone for all of our sins (1 John 2:2). Therefore, Christ's sacrifice does not need to be re-offered. Instead, Christ's sacrifice is to be received by faith (John 1:12; 3:16). Eating Christ's flesh and drinking His blood are symbols of fully receiving His sacrifice on our behalf, by grace through faith."

from
https://www.gotquestions.org/Holy-Eucharist.html

Hans-Georg Lundahl
As you excused yourself for length, allow me to answer with some brevity, at least to the first and most important point.

The history of 1551 and Council of Trent is true, and we take it as we take the Council of Jerusalem, where it was decided Gentiles need not follow all 613 laws of the Torah. But moe important, Got Answers misconstrues one single verse in John 6 and uses it as a refutation of the rest:

"What does that really mean? Jesus goes on to say that "it is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is of no avail. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life" (John 6:63-64). So, if "the flesh is of no avail," why would we have to eat Jesus' flesh in order to have eternal life?"

Because He said so, and because His own flesh and blood was not what he meant.

As a Church Father stated, if His flesh was of no avail, why the Incarnation and the Crucifixion.

Here is Haydock comment to verse 64:
Ver. 64. The flesh profiteth nothing. Dead flesh, separated from the spirit, in the gross manner they supposed they were to eat his flesh, would profit nothing. Neither doth man's flesh, that is to say, man's natural and carnal apprehension, (which refuses to be subject to the spirit, and words of Christ) profit any thing. But it would be the height of blasphemy, to say the living flesh of Christ (which we receive in the blessed sacrament, with his spirit, that is, with his soul and divinity) profiteth nothing. For if Christ's flesh had profited us nothing, he would never have taken flesh for us, nor died in the flesh for us. — Are spirit and life. By proposing to you a heavenly sacrament, in which you shall receive, in a wonderful manner, spirit, grace and life in its very fountain. Ch. — It is the spirit that quickeneth, or giveth life. These words sufficiently correct the gross and carnal imagination of these Capharnaites, that he meant to give them his body and blood to eat in a visible and bloody manner, as flesh, says S. Aug. is sold in the market, and in the shambles;[3] but they do not imply a figurative or metaphorical presence only. The manner of Christ's presence is spiritual and under the outward appearances of bread and wine; but yet he is there truly and really present, by a change of the substance of bread and wine into the substance of his body and blood, which truly and really become our spiritual food, and are truly and really received in the holy sacrament. — The flesh[4] of itself profiteth nothing, not even the flesh of our Saviour Christ, were it not united to the divine person of Christ. But we must take care how we understand these words spoken by our Saviour: for it is certain, says S. Aug. that the word made flesh, is the cause of all our happiness. Wi. — When I promise you life if you eat my flesh, I do not wish you to understand this of that gross and carnal manner, of cutting my members in pieces: such ideas are far from my mind: the flesh profiteth nothing. In the Scriptures, the word flesh is often put for the carnal manner of understanding any thing. If you wish to enter into the spirit of my words, raise your hearts to a more elevated and spiritual way of understanding them. Calmet. — The reader may consult Des Mahis, p. 165, a convert from Protestantism, and who has proved the Catholic doctrine on the Eucharist in the most satisfactory manner, from the written word. Where he shows that Jesus Christ, speaking of his own body, never says the flesh, but my flesh: the former mode of expression is used to signify, as we have observed above, a carnal manner of understanding any thing.

Forgot to give source, here it is:
https://www.ecatholic2000.com/haydock/ntcomment79.shtml

All of Haydock comment accessible from index on this link: http://ppt.li/3xt

Oh, one more:
Whether the Catholic definition of Holy Eucharist is a "re-sacrifice" of Christ, or a "re-offering" of Christ's sacrifice, or a “re-presentation” of Christ’s sacrifice, the concept is unbiblical. Christ does not need to be re-sacrificed. Christ's sacrifice does not need to be re-offered or re-presented. Hebrews 7:27 declares, "Unlike the other high priests, He (Jesus) does not need to offer sacrifices day after day, first for his own sins, and then for the sins of the people. He sacrificed for their sins ONCE for all when He offered Himself."

Another verse Protestants misconstruct, also with a condemnation from Trent.

  • 1) We know from the verse, there is only one sacrifice;
  • 2) We know from Malachi and Daniel the New Covenant has a daily sacrifice, we also know this refers to the Eucharist, since Christ is eternally priest according to the order of Melchisedec, see Psalms and Hebrews;
  • 3) We must conclude the Eucharistic sacrifice cannot be another but must be the same sacrifice as on Calvary.


Veruka psalm40verse2
Hans-Georg, I appreciate you taking the time to share these excerpts with me. I read them but I cannot agree with them. Jesus' sacrifice was only once, on the cross. He does not die again and again in the sacraments. There is no Bible scripture that teaches that the bread and wine of communion turns into Jesus' actual body and blood. When He was on the cross He said, :"It is finished." (John 19:30) When He instituted the Lord's Supper He said "Do this in remembrance of Me" (Luke 22:19). Eating His flesh and drinking His blood is eating His Word, taking His Word into you and living it...believing His Word, letting it become part of you. Following Jesus allows His life to shine through you because you become part of His body. It's obvious that you believe in Jesus and I appreciate you sharing your thoughts with me. :) I simply cannot agree with you on this point.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"Jesus' sacrifice was only once, on the cross."

In its physical shape.

"He does not die again and again in the sacraments."

We do not say he does, you deliberately misconstrue what we say so it should fit what St Paul condemns.

"There is no Bible scripture that teaches that the bread and wine of communion turns into Jesus' actual body and blood."

Synoptics on last supper, St Paul in more than one verse and John 6 in more than one verse says they are so, therefore they must have turned into them.

"When He was on the cross He said, :"It is finished." (John 19:30)"

His redemptive effort was.

"When He instituted the Lord's Supper He said "Do this in remembrance of Me" (Luke 22:19)."

Yes, namely He told the twelve (or eleven if Judas the traitor was gone) to do what He had done, meaning He had done sth, turned bread and wine into His Flesh and Blood.

"Eating His flesh and drinking His blood is eating His Word, taking His Word into you and living it...believing His Word, letting it become part of you."

And never eating and drinking a judgement over yourself? See what St Paul says, some do receive the Eucharist without taking His words into them and living these words.

Now, what exactly did Trent teach in 1551?

Here is a key point:
First of all, the holy council teaches and openly and plainly professes that after the consecration of bread and wine, our Lord Jesus Christ, true God and true man, is truly, really and substantially contained in the august sacrament of the Holy Eucharist under the appearance of those sensible things. For there is no repugnance in this that our Savior sits always at the right hand of the Father in heaven[3] according to the natural mode of existing, and yet is in many other places sacramentally present to us in His own substance by a manner of existence which, though we can scarcely express in words, yet with our understanding illumined by faith, we can conceive and ought most firmly to believe is possible to God.

https://www.ewtn.com/library/COUNCILS/TRENT13.HTM#1

This means,
His presence is the presence not of His agony on Calvary, but of Him risen and seated at the Father's Right Hand.

However, if you look at the Bible, Christ in Heaven is present there "as one sacrificed"

Apocalypse 5 : [6] And I saw: and behold in the midst of the throne and of the four living creatures, and in the midst of the ancients, a Lamb standing as it were slain, having seven horns and seven eyes: which are the seven Spirits of God, sent forth into all the earth. [7] And he came and took the book out of the right hand of him that sat on the throne.

If in Heaven He is "standing as it were slain", why not His presence by spiritual bilocation on Earth?

Glad you are not totally anti-catholic.

Veruka psalm40verse2
Hans, I am on my way out the door so I will give a full reply to your last comment when I get home. However, I must take a few seconds to stress in the strongest way that although I am not against Catholics, I am as anti-Catholicism as can be. I will never support the Catholic church in any way because it teaches much error.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
You just crossed one line, considering me as a believer in Jesus when I gave Catholic theology.

There is a difference between being anti-Catholic and anti-what-you-think-is-Catholic.

Veruka psalm40verse2
"they do not imply a figurative or metaphorical presence only. The manner of Christ's presence is spiritual and under the outward appearances of bread and wine; but yet he is there truly and really present, by a change of the substance of bread and wine into the substance of his body and blood, which truly and really become our spiritual food, and are truly and really received in the holy sacrament."

***Respectfully, this teaching just violated the Law of Non-Contradiction. It is saying that the Sacrament ISN'T the physical body and blood of Christ while at the same time saying that it IS.

I am FOR Biblical truth and AGAINST the teaching of error in so far as it relates to the Bible, to Jesus, and all Biblical truth. The Catholic church teaches MANY errors, things that are in direct contradiction to the clear teaching of the Bible. I believe there are many Catholics who have put their faith in Jesus as the Son of God, but unfortunately they are still following the doctrines of men and not of God (Matthew 15:9). I am not deliberately misconstruing anything; by saying this you are attributing evil motives to me, which is completely untrue. I judge only by the Bible. If a teaching lines up with the Bible, so far so good; if it does not, then it is clearly an error. In so far as transubstantiation goes, God cannot contradict Himself. He teaches in His Word, over and over again, that we are NOT to eat blood. In addition, the Bible uses symbology to convey a spiritual meaning. Therefore, when Jesus told us to eat His flesh and drink His blood, He was not offering us His physical flesh and blood to physically put in our mouths and eat it. This is a spiritual thing. Here are examples of verses that show just how much God detests the consumption of blood:

Genesis 9:4
"Only you shall not eat flesh with its life, that is, its blood.

Leviticus 3:17
'It is a perpetual statute throughout your generations in all your dwellings: you shall not eat any fat or any blood.'"

Leviticus 17:10-12
'And any man from the house of Israel, or from the aliens who sojourn among them, who eats any blood, I will set My face against that person who eats blood and will cut him off from among his people.

Leviticus 17:14
"For as for the life of all flesh, its blood is identified with its life. Therefore I said to the sons of Israel, 'You are not to eat the blood of any flesh, for the life of all flesh is its blood; whoever eats it shall be cut off.'

Leviticus 19:26
'You shall not eat anything with the blood, nor practice divination or soothsaying.

Deuteronomy 12:16
"Only you shall not eat the blood; you are to pour it out on the ground like water.

Deuteronomy 12:23
"Only be sure not to eat the blood, for the blood is the life, and you shall not eat the life with the flesh.

Deuteronomy 12:25
"You shall not eat it, so that it may be well with you and your sons after you, for you will be doing what is right in the sight of the LORD.

Deuteronomy 15:23
"Only you shall not eat its blood; you are to pour it out on the ground like water.

Acts 15:20
but that we write to them that they abstain from things contaminated by idols and from fornication and from what is strangled and from blood.

Acts 15:29
that you abstain from things sacrificed to idols and from blood and from things strangled and from fornication; if you keep yourselves free from such things, you will do well. Farewell."

Acts 21:25
"But concerning the Gentiles who have believed, we wrote, having decided that they should abstain from meat sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from fornication."

Ezekiel 33:25
"Therefore say to them, 'Thus says the Lord GOD, "You eat meat with the blood in it, lift up your eyes to your idols as you shed blood Should you then possess the land?

Zechariah 9:7
And I will remove their blood from their mouth And their detestable things from between their teeth.

*************Finally, in Jeremiah 15:16 we read, 16 Thy words were found, and I did eat them; and thy word was unto me the joy and rejoicing of mine heart: for I am called by thy name, O Lord God of hosts." Does this mean that Jeremiah physically took God's Word and chewed it up and ate it? No. This is figurative.

Please understand that I am not trying to offend you. It is time for all believers to look at what the clear text of the Bible says.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
The verses you quote are accounted for by St Augustine.

As said, on rare occasions, Christ made the transsubstantiation a visible miracle instead of just a sacramental and understood one, and in those cases, drinking the blood visibly blood is prohibited for this very reason, the blood is then kept as relics (those with the face of Christ on one table cloth, and liquid blood in one chalice).

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"I am not deliberately misconstruing anything; by saying this you are attributing evil motives to me, which is completely untrue."

Refers, no doubt, to this:

"Another verse Protestants misconstruct"

right? Well, I did not say each Protestant was individually doing so by deliberate meanness. Collectively, your theological traditions misconstruct them. Individually, many of you are dupes of those traditions.

You were, deliberately or not, saying I was attributing evil motives to you personally, but I did not say "you deliberately misconstruct it". I also did not say you miscontruct it on your own.

Veruka psalm40verse2
Hans-Georg, every person will be believing something in error if they don't line their beliefs up with the Bible. The Bible is meant to be taken as a whole. It is not mean to be "built upon" by man, that is, by human men and women adding to its teachings. Many churches have done this, both Catholic AND Protestant. You can find a whole playlist on my channel denouncing the Protestant churches that have a)twisted Bible Scripture and b)added their own teachings to Bible Scripture. The playlist is here: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLy9biS9rAYMRW_BUcUrGzyu2niz0FiUe8

It's incumbent upon each individual believer in Christ to read His Word, to know His Word, and to go no further than His Word. Subsequently, you may be interested in this video: "Questions for Catholics": https://youtu.be/zwLy283To7Y

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"The Bible is meant to be taken as a whole. It is not mean to be "built upon" by man, that is, by human men and women adding to its teachings."

We Catholics basically agree on that. Bible and Apostolic Tradition must be taken as a whole and no substantial addition can be made to its teachings. Since the Bible is not sufficiently clear to you that Christ is really present, Apostolic Tradition is. You don't find early Church Fathers denying the Real Presence. You do find early Church Fathers not mentioning it, directly - but leaning only on those is cherrypicking.

Some Protestant Theologians will make collections of Early Church Fathers that sidestep the very clear teaching of St Ignatius of Antioch.

The bishops of Antioch start out as:

  • 1) St Peter, the chief of the Apostles, after he left Jerusalem and before he came to Rome;
  • 2) St Evodius
  • 3) St Ignatius.


If you claim tradition had been corrupted in Antioch by the time of St Ignatius, what do you do with Matthew 28:20?

"It's incumbent upon each individual believer in Christ to read His Word, to know His Word, and to go no further than His Word."

Where exactly do you find that "in His Word"?

I will probably look at Prasch's questions too, right now I am answering you.

Veruka psalm40verse2
With respect, you continually point to writings OUTSIDE the Bible to make your point. We are taught in 1 Corinthians 4:6 "Do not go beyond what is written". 2 Timothy 3:15 teaches us that the Holy Scriptures make us wise unto salvation. Notice that it does not say "The Holy Scriptures + The Church Fathers + Apostolic Tradition + The Council of Trent etc. will make you wise unto salvation". Please quote me a Bible verse that points us towards any "Church Fathers", or indeed, any Scripture that tells us to look for knowledge outside of the COMPLETE Word of God. You won't find any. Furthermore, Apostolic tradition is the New Testament. Anything outside the Bible is adding to the Bible. If it goes against the clear teaching of Scripture then it is to be thrown out.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"We are taught in 1 Corinthians 4:6 "Do not go beyond what is written"."

Not Sola Scriptura.

Here is context: [5] Therefore judge not before the time; until the Lord come, who both will bring to light the hidden things of darkness, and will make manifest the counsels of the hearts; and then shall every man have praise from God. [6] But these things, brethren, I have in a figure transferred to myself and to Apollo, for your sakes; that in us you may learn, that one be not puffed up against the other for another, above that which is written. [7] For who distinguisheth thee? Or what hast thou that thou hast not received? And if thou hast received, why dost thou glory, as if thou hadst not received it?

He is speaking of ambition, not doctrine. As to "ambition" in the sense of clergy, we do not go beyond what is written, since the concept of a Christian clergy is clearly in the Gospels.

"2 Timothy 3:15 teaches us that the Holy Scriptures make us wise unto salvation."

Here is the verse : [15] And because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures, which can instruct thee to salvation, by the faith which is in Christ Jesus.

Yes, a very good familiarity with Scripture can make someone instructed for salvation. Mine involves Matthew 28:20 for perpetuity of visible Church and a few verses before for this hinging on clergy.

"Notice that it does not say "The Holy Scriptures + The Church Fathers + Apostolic Tradition + The Council of Trent etc. will make you wise unto salvation"."

Notice that Jewish Tradition outside Torah was accepted by St Paul in same chapter, since he cited Jannes and Mambres. Notice also that people who are not yet and not from childhood familiar with OT Scripture in the way St Timothy was may well need someone like him to expose them. Even St Timothy on his part needed St Paul - already a clergyman - telling him about Christ. So, II Tim 3:15 is a very bad claim about Sola Scriptura.

"Please quote me a Bible verse that points us towards any "Church Fathers", or indeed, any Scripture that tells us to look for knowledge outside of the COMPLETE Word of God."

The complete word of God does involve Apostolic Tradition, just as in OT it involved Tradition from Moses on Mt Sinai or other "extrascriptural" parts (the Shema is for instance including words that are not written in Moses).

Also, any verse where St Paul tells St Timothy to instruct is a verse where St Paul tells some others to take his instruction. Meaning, he was making St Timothy what would now be termed a bishop, the most basic type of Church Father.

"Furthermore, Apostolic tradition is the New Testament."

It is of the New Covenant, but not limited to the text of NT. If you claim it is, you need, on your own rules, to back that up from NT. You can't. Indeed, several passages in letters to Timothy and Titus contradict that.

If you mean that now NT text is all that is left, that cannot be backed up by NT or OT texts, and is a statement about Church History which contradicts, once again, Matthew 28:20.

I missed out on Jeremiah, but here is the point : one of the prophets, I think Isaiah but could be wrong, was given a scroll to eat and it was sweet as honey.

He did physically eat it and Jeremiah could very well be referring to that.

Prophetically, this was foreboding, the Word was going to assume flesh and also going to give us His flesh to eat.

Monday, March 5, 2018

.... on Creationist Explaining Cave Paintings


Q
How do young earth creationists explain cave paintings?
https://www.quora.com/How-do-young-earth-creationists-explain-cave-paintings/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl#


Hans-Georg Lundahl
Blog : "http://creavsevolu.blogspot.com". Debating evolutionists for 15 years +.
Answered Jan 30, 2017
The trucker Brett Passmore got his answer collapsed.

It was actually, on a first level of response extremely good:

“Uh….. Someone drew pictures on a cave wall. How does an evolutionist explain it?”

If this was thought inadequate, I suppose there was some unstated thought behind the words of the question.

If you mean why Altamira and Lascaux were painted in 30,000 BC and 20,000 BC, I’d say it is because they were painted within two centuries after the Flood, which explains the style was the same (painter still living or his disciple or her disciple), and as carbon 14 level compared to other carbon was still very low back then, this gets misdated to the kind of dates we see in the text books.

Since this thing about carbon dating is a recurrent theme in archaeology, contrary to John Erikson: “With either denial or whatever bullshit they make up on the spot” we actually do have a systematic and thought through answer to it.

If you want to know more, see for instance here:

Where my dating of music differs from Habermehl's
http://filolohika.blogspot.fr/2017/01/where-my-dating-of-music-differs-from.html


(she and I are both creationists, but differ on what the rise of carbon really was, so her modified timeline is different from mine), or here:

C14 Calibrations, comparing two preliminary ones, mine and Tas Walker's
http://creavsevolu.blogspot.fr/2016/08/c14-calibrations-comparing-two.html


(he’s a geologist and made his curve from trying to figure out what Biblical dates can correspond to peak of ice age, I was simply trying to make a nice curve and checking more on the later parts of it, with better identifiable Biblical events)

Times given as
x min / hours ago are some time back. Dito, the "just now". The comments which were deleted are not so by me.

i
Michael W. Rickard II
Feb 1, 2017
2 upvotes including Hans-Georg Lundahl
T hanks for your detailed answer and links for further thought.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Feb 1, 2017
You are welcome!

ij
Basil Fondu
Jan 30, 2017
2 upvotes
I must have missed the part where you cited testable evidence for a world-wide flood.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Jan 30, 2017
That certain things are testably there does not mean all agree they prove the world wide flood. Some persons (excluding me) do not consider Cretaceous, Permian and other faunas as evidence for the Flood and diverse biotopes when the Flood struck, but as evidence of millions and billions of years between which the biotopes evolved into each other.

Basil Fondu
Jan 30, 2017
So you have no testable evidence for a world-wide flood.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Jan 31, 2017
You have a confusion about what “logic” and “testable” mean.

The pieces of evidence are indeed VERY testable. It is a question of LOGIC - not of other or more testable evidence - whether they point rather to a Flood or rather to millions of years.

iij
Everett Sass
Feb 4, 2017
2 upvotes including Hans-Georg Lundahl
I didn't quite understand your answer. What do you believe is wrong with the 'accepted' method of radiometric dating and what do you do instead (and why)?

Hans-Georg Lundahl
5m ago
First of all, I don’t conflate all types of radiometric dating with each other.

I am talking specifically of carbon dating and other methods are different.

Second, when Göbekli Tepe is dated to two half lives ago, it is presumed that the organic material would, if a researcher had come back to the time in a time machine, tested as “recent”, that is, that the carbon 14 in the atmosphere would have been like now.

If carbon 14 in the atmosphere was instead about 50 % in relation to carbon 12 to what it is now, if there was one carbon 14 per two trillions carbon 12 instead of one carbon 14 per only one trillion carbon 12 as now, a team in a time machine would back then have dated recent organic material as one half life old, and this means that Göbekli Tepe could be only one half life back instead of two, like one of the two dated half lives being from original lower carbon 14 content and other from the time the things have been in the mud since then. Or, for Göbekli Tepe, I should rather say in the sand.

My first test is therefore not carbon dating, but Biblical history, and using this I do find that GT - if I identify it correctly as Babel - is even less than one half life back and would have been dated even older than one half life.

The thing is, when Lascaux was painted, there was so little carbon 14, I think I recall it is about 4 half lifes old, and it is post-Flood, so close to Babel / GT, it would have dated about three half lives old.

Now, with this in mind, go to the article which I give to compare my recalibration with Tas Walker’s.

C14 Calibrations, comparing two preliminary ones, mine and Tas Walker's
http://creavsevolu.blogspot.fr/2016/08/c14-calibrations-comparing-two.html


iu
Comment deleted
Jan 30, 2017

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Jan 30, 2017
How would a scenario with a rising level of carbon 14 be “ignorance and superstition”?

Comment deleted
Jan 30, 2017

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Jan 30, 2017
1 upvote
“free, educated, secular and democratic”

An oxymoron.

If it is secular and democratic and educated in accordance with such political decisions, it is not free.

The question was not about how I explained the Flood, which is another debate.

The question was about how I explained certain paintings, the problem of which is that their dating seems to refute Biblical chronology, and I have answered, as you have not been able to refute so far, that the carbon 14 levels can have risen.

If some organic material of Altamira has 2.654 % of the modern level of carbon 14 (relative to carbon 12), it can of course, if we consider the halflife, be because it had c. 100% of it when recent and has been decaying c. the time it takes for 100 to become 2.654, that being 30,000 years. Or it could have had 5.308 % when recent and gone through only one half life. Or less than 5.308 % (but not much less) and gone through less than one half life (but also not much less).

Whether there was a Flood before that is actually not important to the question.

Except, the population change in Europe c. 37,000 BP would indicate something happened. I’d say it was the global Flood. And that by taking into account that date, the Biblical chronology date of the Flood and the decay rate of carbon 14, we can calculate what the atmospheric carbon 14 ratio was - or at least one typical one.

C.R. Denmon
Jan 31, 2017
2 upvotes
"that the carbon 14 levels can have risen." this year or always? Because cosmic rays turn N-14 into C-14. Are you arguing the sun was in a significantly different location 20,000 years ago? Rather sound scientific understandings indicate that Carbon 14 has been fluctuating over the last 10,000 years as we would expect, a small measurable variation that can be accounted for. 20,000 years is twice what the bible contends occurred. What evidence other than the claim it has do you have to demonstrate conclusively that all evidence is concurrent with your understanding while addressing all evidence that is in direct contradiction to your claims.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Just now
You know, your claim of a fluctuation over the last 10,000 years and this one being small and measurable, that claim is not historically testable.

Over the last TWO thousand years, yes, we can test that historically and I accept that, even up to 2500 years ago.

Knowing that Hezekias lived before 500 BC, and his seal has just been found, I would like to know how associated organic material will be dated. If his seal dates older than expected date, that would to me argue that as recently as in his time the carbon 14 level was lower.

Paul Manning
Apr 27, 2017
I like your style. Keep it up.

Adam Parker
May 9, 2017
Nice. You chased Derek off!

... on Linguistic Creationism


Q
Is there a name for the linguistic equivalent of creationism?
https://www.quora.com/Is-there-a-name-for-the-linguistic-equivalent-of-creationism/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl


Quora Question Details Bot
Aug 8, 2017
We all know about the creation/evolution "debate". Creationists believe that the world was created as is, by God, because Genesis says so.

But Genesis also says that various languages were created by God, at the tower of Babel.

This seems to get a lot less space on the Internet, but has similar issues

Hans-Georg Lundahl
1m ago
“But Genesis also says that various languages were created by God, at the tower of Babel.”

As Creationists also believe this, this is simply part of Creationism.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Studied religions as curious parallels and contrasts to Xtian faith since 9, 10?
Answered 1m ago
There is no one linguistic equivalent of creationism.

If you though creationism means fixity of species and linguistics involved some believing a fixity of languages, that would be naive linguistics and misrepresenting creationism.

As to Tower of Babel, creationists do not pretend all 6000 languages and or dialects arrived fullfeathered thousands of years ago, and in some countries French and English replaced Latin by Conquest. We do believe more than one language and mutually incomprehensible ones were spoken directly after Babel, and then language has evolved some.

Or languages have. The singular would mean the evolution of languages were a kind of evolution of language as such, which it is not.

Speciation has also occurred several times over since the Ark, we now have 16 to 25 species of hedgehogs (depending on whether moonrats count or not). On the Ark, there was one couple.

As to my personal theory on whether PIE languages rather come from a Sprachbund than from a Proto-Language, that has been argued by Trubetskoy, independently of any creationist motivation.

The big problem with PIE for a Creationist is, IE languages correspond to more than one of the grandsons of Noah in table of languages. So, say PIE was originally spoken by someone like tribe of Gomer, what happened to the language of Iavan (Greeks) or Madai (Medes)? If on the other hand there really was such a displacement, and you could argue it from PIE being a good reconstruction, why is Nostratic not also one (if you consistently prefer Proto-Language over Sprachbund) and an even older such, since Finnish and Esquimaux shares traits with IE languages.

But there are creationists who do not agree on this point, and if naive conclusions from Tower of Babel were what you were thinking of, you were talking about a counterpart to a naive creationism - which is obviously still less wrong than evolutionism.

Friday, March 2, 2018

... on Extra-Biblical Evidence for Young Earth Creationism, Negative and Positive


Q
What evidence do creationists have for their belief system that does not come from the Bible?
https://www.quora.com/What-evidence-do-creationists-have-for-their-belief-system-that-does-not-come-from-the-Bible/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl


Answer requested
by Jean Dieudonné

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Studied religions as curious parallels and contrasts to Xtian faith since 9, 10?
Answered 1h ago
“What evidence do creationists have for their belief system that does not come from the Bible?”

Well, the Christian beliefsystem of a Catholic Creationist comes from many sources, but the chief ones are Bible and Church Tradition.

The question is about the other ones - and these do not constitute sources for a complete belief system, but for details - one of which would obviously be a Young Earth and that one is much involved in Creationism. I’ll answer for that one.

Positively, we don’t have 4.5 billion, nor even 2 million years of written human history. Also, extra-Biblical and extra-Christian, that is Pagan, versions of early human history seem to agree with ours, and their timelines are around ours. Add salt level of seas if you like. In other words we have evidence pointing to a shorter existence of Earth.

Negatively, contrary to “popular” and “scientific” belief, we do not have a clear cut case for any dating method which would contradict the Biblical chronology.

  • potassium argon is debunked by Mt St Helens and by some NZ volcano
  • dendro has too little material to go back very far
  • C14 can be recalibrated in a creationist sense
  • geostratigraphy can be explained by diverse biotopes
  • distant starlight (actually more for old universe than directly old earth) is moot unless heliocentrism can be proven, which it cannot.


This mass of purported and failed evidence for an old earth and universe is by itself evidence there is sth wrong with the idea and some providence over men has used their waste of talents to tell us that. I am certain it is God.

... on Galatians 2, on whom St Paul withstood to his face


Video
Did St. Paul Really Rebuke St. Peter In Galatians 2?
vaticancatholic.com | Ajoutée le 11 févr. 2018
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sxDvhDIiVc0


My comments
which are initially sceptical...

I
Looking up - Barnabas had been mentioned, then verse 11 "when Kephas came to Antioch, I withstood him to the face, because he was to be blamed"

Him usually refers to one mentioned before, but here we have two people mentioned before, you mean it was Barnabas?

Here is bishop Challoner's solution:

"I withstood": The fault that is here noted in the conduct of St. Peter, was only a certain imprudence, in withdrawing himself from the table of the Gentiles, for fear of giving offence to the Jewish converts; but this, in such circumstances, when his so doing might be of ill consequence to the Gentiles, who might be induced thereby to think themselves obliged to conform to the Jewish way of living, to the prejudice of their Christian liberty. Neither was St. Paul's reprehending him any argument against his supremacy; for in such cases an inferior may, and sometimes ought, with respect, to admonish his superior.

I know St Thomas agrees it was St Peter, have you any Church Father disagreeing?

Wait, ok, you mean Cephas is not Petrus, but someone else named Cephas?

So, any Church Father at least not claiming this Cephas is St Peter, when exposing the passage? [Yes, there is, see video, or read my later admissions]

17:46 It could make sense same person is first called Peter and the Cephas because of variatio sermonis. Style. As a trained Pharisee (by background) St Paul no doubt had a sense of that and as a Roman citizen he no doubt had a sense of Greek rhetoric - in which variatio sermonis plays a part.

II
Supposing Pope Michael is Pope, which you don't agree on, since he is against Feeneyism, but supposing he is, have I done what St Paul on your view did not do to St Peter, or have I preserved my rights and told the Pope where his rights end in this:

Correspondence of Hans Georg Lundahl : Correspondence with Pope Michael
http://correspondentia-ioannis-georgii.blogspot.com/2018/02/correspondence-with-pope-michael.html


Esp. since St Peter (as you quoted) told Ananias he was not obliged to evangelic poverty, it was a choice and not one to be done in a sham way.

III
You are aware some Churches with material apostolic succession are teaching that the restrictions in the words of St James bind to this day? Orthodox are against eating blood food. (They also call the see of Jerusalem "Meter kai Mathetes panton ton ekklesion", as you may imagine). [Discussion of Acts 15]

IV
10:59 In other words, if I need to comment on this to a Muslim, the words of St James can be paraphrased "Peter has made a fatwa"? [context : discussion of Acts 15]

V
18:56 While I have for my part sometimes used the liberties of Divino Afflante Spiritu (notably to prove that Synoptics wrote before Ioudaios and St John after Ioudaios became a word for non-Christian, and that St John did note Our Lord used the word in a different way, even before Pilate He could have used Ioudaios because the majority of the nation had betrayed Him, rather than as singling out the traitors, notably to show Nimrod can have planned a three step rocket), I have also been careful to try to verify no Church Father unity opposed my interpretation.

Divino Afflante Spiritu is at least not above the Council of Trent as signed by the then ruling Popes.

I checked the three step rocket by noting Patristic disunity about "skyscraper" or "skyline" via Postilla in libros Geneseos, which I consider an early work by St Thomas. A unity about "skyscraper" type of single tower would have doomed my solution.

VI
23:41 You know that one reason for confusion if you are right would be there being no name's day for the other Cephas.

And one reason against you would be that nothing elsewhere indicates another Cephas than Peter.

As far as anyone could see, Jesus Christ invented the name in both Aramaic and Greek - like God invented Abraham.

The Hebrew counterpart, as I have heard, would be Elitzur, actually my fourth first or given name - not mentioned in connection with St Peter himself, even if there is an OT character who is named so.

23:56 Among Galatians, obviously, there were both Judaic and Gentile Christians.

Jew had not yet become a word for non-Christian, so many Christians were of overtly Jewish (or Judaic, if you prefer) background (as in the end times, btw).

24:36 St John wrote his Gospel after Jew had already become a word for non-Christian.

This is the first use I made of the method advocated by Divino Afflante Spiritu, since it simply confirms tradition. In the days when it was written, after Apocalypse, the Judaic Christians were ashamed to show Jewish culture because that was already associated with rejection of Christ. St John's Gospel may be the last book of the NT written (other candidate being perhaps III John), and decades after Galatians.

Galatians was written before Nero died, since St Paul was martyred by Nero.

St John's Gospel was written - pace Jean Colson's thesis or rather a detail in it - by a man who was the beloved disciple and whom Domitian had failed to martyr, and exiled to Patmos. The Apocalypse was written on Patmos, before Domitian died, and the Gospel even later, when "honest Nerva" had liberated John from Patmos.

So, knowledge of Hebrew and Aramaic would have been very much more available to the first audience of Galatians than to that of St John.

c. 24:50 Anyone [first] reading Galatians would only have known St Peter as Petros or Simeon?

Even supposing a very reduced knowledge of Hebrew/Aramaic compared to first audience of St Matthew, a decade earlier or more, and in Holy Land not Anatolia, there is also oral tradition, they would have picked up from an occasional mention that Petros was in Aramaic known as Cephas.

VII
25:09 Unless he was referring to two different people, really?

It could also be St Paul, when affronting St Peter, had deliberately used the Aramaic word Kephas, simply because he was externally Judaising on that occasion.

It could even be St Paul had used Kephas as a covert hint about this and St Peter had taken the reproach while those around had missed it.

VIII
25:31 First, Greek form in St Matthew.

Presumably he used Aramaic form in Aramaic original, and then Greek form in his own Greek translation, perhaps?

Then, "readers". As we know from elsewhere the actual readers of any Epistle would be people St Paul had typically talked to (Philemon probably an exception, for reasons unique to the case) and so they would be people knowing more than just what St Paul was writing to them. So, St Paul would also have talked to the Galatian clergy before he wrote them and therefore have known if they could be relied on to identify Kephas as precisely Peter or if it would confuse them.

You are reasoning as a Sola Scriptura Protestant.

People occasionally do get to know each other by correspondence, but like you don't date someone you met on the internet without first meeting in real life in safe circumstances, early Christian clergy were also not likely to just accept an epistle from someone they had never met. There could for instance be someone they had seen in St Paul's company when he left them who brought the epistle, as this was way before Turn and Taxis. Or British Post Office.

unless otherwise informed - well, the thing is, they obviously could very well have been otherwise informed.

  • a) orally by St Paul
  • b) by the man bringing the letter, who would have known.


This brings us to the question, does tradition give room for your solution?

Trentine and Vincentian criterium, you know ... (it gives for at least a good part of Jean Colson's thesis, he did a good check-up, while he got his imprimatur in 1968, he was ordained 30 years earlier, in 1938 and was not totally unfaithful to his iusiurandum adversus modernismum).

25:55 was not St Peter

Hmmmm St Clement of Alexandria ... thank you.

Next question, is he a saint in the Catholic Church or not?

26:37 "This is very strong evidence"

No, it is evidence you are not heretical, if either Clement is a saint or the Vincentian and Trentine criterium admits Origen and Tertuallian who are not saints, but it is not very strong evidence, since Clement could simply have guessed and also since Alexandrian Church came from Alexandrian Jews (the kind who would say Jason in preference over Ieshua) and would therefore have been capable of assuming, even wrongly, Kephas would be someone else, since using an Aramaic and not Greek form of the name.

But you score a point at least by bringing up someone at least in the loose sense a Church Father.

26:49 OK, Providentissimus Deus supports your point, Roma loquuta est and so on (however it was not loquuta in direct favour of Heliocentrism, even if a phrase in historic context was likely to be taken so).

Indeed, St Jerome's words about others not believing identity with Prince of Apostles is at least as strong as St Justin's words about others not believing the Millennium was upcoming.

Two Church Fathers have therefore shown you are at least within correct limits on this one.

28:53 - you have made it as safe as I about rocketry plans at Göbekli Tepe : since Church Fathers are not united on what this means, since you have one faction saying St Peter erred and another saying they simulated, bringing up a third, even new, explanation, contradicting nothing all have in common (as you showed with Clement of Alexandria and with acknowledgement by St Jerome) is not outside Vincentian and Trentine criterium.

IX
30:03 When Orthodox reject Purgatory, since they nevertheless accept nominally the Vincentian criterium (affirming it at Jerusalem and Iasi as much as Catholics at Trent), they do say that St Gregory the Great did believe in Purgatory, and they put it down, his being wrong, to having relied on a vision and taking it too literally - but his predecessor from the selfsame nomination of Jesus Christ also relied on a vision, for a very important point which the Orthodox are not at all likely to dispute.

X
33:30 The Theadelphos could also be a half brother, a son of St Joseph by his first marriage. (Protogospel attributed to him says so, it is accepted as ... fidei proxima ... by Orthodox, and probably by a lot of Uniates).

XI
34:06 Back to Jean Colson's thesis ... "the depositum fidei is finished when the last apostle dies" ... not sure if the sepulchral miracle in Ephesus was a death or a rapture, but this would stay uncontradicted by the beloved disciple being outside the twelve, as also if (contrary to fact) it would have been St Barnabas who had written the last book?

XII
39:22 What do you consider about this observation on the new offertory:

Creation vs. Evolution : Cain Did Not Sacrifice Wheat
http://creavsevolu.blogspot.com/2018/01/cain-did-not-sacrifice-wheat.html


Background to the sentence: Domesticated, that is cultivable, wheat is from a post-Flood mutation, from near Göbekli Tepe. - Wild wheat in a documentary I had seen would be Einkorn wheat, which can self sow and would be a nightmare to harvest, especially for an impatient man like Cain ... so he could have sacrificed some other "fruit of the earth" as that "offertory" has also been used by "inculturation" with non-wheat hosts, in the seventies.

I am not sure whether Emmer wheat, also a wild wheat, could equally be considered a possible ancestor of cultivated wheat, and if so, whether it is equally a nightmare to harvest.

XIII
46:00 In other words, the attitude of St Paul would have been to this Cephas as that of Monseigneur Lefebvre to Cardinal Tisserant (if I recall correctly) when the latter was modernist?

46:40 We know that St Peter was bishop of Antioch.

Supposing the Cephas was indeed someone else, why did not St Peter rebuke him?

XIV
50:18 Speaking of Agabus ... would you mind doing a refutation of tektonTV on "in this present concern" being, on his view, that of the famine, rather than the concern mentioned in the beginning of I Corinthians 7? I did one in writing, but as long as my blogs are not printed, your video may reach a bit further.

XV
Final
1:01:46 If Cephas was one of the trouble makers, and was St Peter, Acts XV could be explained as him having received the rebuke from a subordinate, according to what he already knew, and therefore been back on the right side in Acts XV - reason enough for Luke not to mention him by name, as he was already dissociated from troublemakers, if so.

One of the key problems is, how many times did St Peter see Antioch before finally leaving Jerusalem for Antioch (before then going on to Rome)? If he didn't, problem solved, Cephas would have been someone else as we see St Peter in Jerusalem - on the other hand, that would have meant, St James got his place in Jerusalem only after Acts XV, since Peter and Apostles (presumably those of the twelve still alive) would still have been there.

This is supported by 15:2, but not indisputably, since apostle also has a wider meaning.

The other option would be, the conflict arose when St Peter came to Antioch to become the first bishop there, he initially acted cowardly, a weak moment. But took his own back again after receiving the rebuke, when standing up in Jerusalem.

1:03:12 Well, the position that if St Peter was already in Antioch they still went to the Apostles in Jerusalem would only be tenable for someone saying he had no special privilege among the Apostles (one but not only position among Orthodox, other being "each diocesan bishop succeeds St Peter").

If St Peter had first caused trouble in Antioch, was the chief apostle as we rightly believe, the procedure would have been like that of Reverend de Nantes, going to accuse Pope Paul VI before the judgement of Pope Paul VI - on the other hand, if Montini had been a Pope, he would have said, he could not judge himself, therefore de Nantes would have said "then appoint judges over you for this case".

It is possible, not likely, that this is what St Peter did. The first Pope himself stood accused, he could not judge himself, he appointed the other apostles as judges over him. And obviously was acquitted by his repentance, if so (something we did not see from Montini's side, with de Nantes, though!)

1:05:33 There is always an answer ... indeed.

I saw some Novus Ordo Catholic (I haven't quite totally given up on him being actually Catholic yet) who argued against scientific accuracy on account of "they sow not and they harvest not, and yet God feeds them" by pointing to birds who die in winter.

Obviously, Christ didn't say God feeds the birds or clothes the lilies each individually perpetuating its natural life to eternity. He meant God feeds the birds and clothes the lilies until they die or wither, each in turn, but not all at the same time.


Unknown to me when watching it, there was an earlier publication than theirs:

The Shield of Faith : Did St. Paul withstand St. Peter to his Face?
http://divinefiat.blogspot.fr/2015/07/did-st-paul-withstand-st-peter-to-his.html


It is from Wednesday, July 22, 2015 according to settings.

Thursday, March 1, 2018

... on Galileo and the Church (quora)


Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere : ... on Galileo and the Church (quora) · ... on Whether Geocentrism is Obliging? Debate with Anthony Zarrella · With Zarrella et al. on Geocentrism · Correspondence of Hans Georg Lundahl : With Anthony Zarrella on Metaphysics of Science

After checking
with Rex Dinneny, here is what he wants to add:

Rex Dinneny
It seems you have everything that was said in the discussion I guess I would prefer that you do make note that I am aware of a few errors that I made in making my response and as a result my answer was taken down but no I don’t mind if you publish the discourse

Q
Why did the Roman Catholic Church oppose the ideas of Galileo?
https://www.quora.com/Why-did-the-Roman-Catholic-Church-oppose-the-ideas-of-Galileo/answer/Rex-Dinneny


Rex Dinneny
A.A Philosophy & Social Sciences, American River College (2019)
Answered 6h ago
This is mostly myth, the Catholic Church didn’t directly oppose heliocentrism (however many individuals within did) and quite honestly direct opposition would be a very clear historical contradiction as the scientific works of Nicolaus Copernicus were supported as well as endorsed by the Catholic Church. Even more ironically Pope Gregory XIII directly endorsed much of Galileo’s early work and heliocentrism was seen as a non issue for the most part despite it being a minority position held within the church at the time. Some 30 plus years later however Pope Paul V sent St. Cardinal Robert Bellarmine to question heliocentrism as compared to geocentrism and instructed him to tell Galileo to give reasons for and against heliocentrism based on his scientific observations as well as point out any possible support that may be evident within the Christian scriptures.

This is generally where the historical confusion begins Galileo took offense to the whole matter and began to act rebellious towards the church on the matter. A few years later Pope Urban VIII sent him to the Roman Inquisition for suspected heresy. Not directly based on his theories but rather on his former attitude towards the church it was also evident that he was publishing versions of scripture that contained alterations in the book of Joshua where it speaks of the Sun standing still. As a result he was put on house arrest the remainder of his life. The Catholic Church has also since apologized for their attitude in the matter and how it was handled in many regards however the story that Galileo was fully innocent and being actively sought out for persecution is myth and as one of the posters has already pointed out his punishment was mostly based on how he handled himself throughout the process rather than his scientific theories themselves.

Even more ironically Galileo's ideas where actually wrong he did not teach that the sun was the center of the Solar System rather that it is the center of the Universe.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
20m ago
“the Catholic Church didn’t directly oppose heliocentrism (however many individuals within did)”

And a cardinal like Bellarmine and a Pope like Urban VIII just count like “individuals in the Church”?

Pope Michael - whether you call him so or not - has reedited “Nine Papal decisions against Heliocentrism”, which you might want to buy and read before repeating what you just said.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
14m ago
“Even more ironically Pope Gregory XIII directly endorsed much of Galileo’s early work”

Gregory XIII died in 1585.

In 1585 Galileo was not yet involved in science that much and especially not in astronomy. Take a look here:

“In 1589, he was appointed to the chair of mathematics in Pisa. In 1591, his father died, and he was entrusted with the care of his younger brother Michelagnolo. In 1592, he moved to the University of Padua where he taught geometry, mechanics, and astronomy until 1610.[35] During this period, Galileo made significant discoveries in both pure fundamental science (for example, kinematics of motion and astronomy) as well as practical applied science (for example, strength of materials and pioneering the telescope). His multiple interests included the study of astrology, which at the time was a discipline tied to the studies of mathematics and astronomy.[36]”

Galileo Galilei - Wikipedia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galileo_Galilei


All of this after Gregory XIII had died.

So, Gregory XIII’s support for him cannot in any way be construed as support for Heliocentrism.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
11m ago
"and heliocentrism was seen as a non issue for the most part"

Up to 1600 and process of Bruno I would say.

You know the Prima Via of St Thomas involves God as ultimate prime mover of local motion of ... guess what? ... universe around Earth.

This means, turn it inside out, let Earth rotate around its axis, let each "sun" have many earths rotating around it (his view of fix stars) and ... you would tend to get many gods, as a result, instead of the one God due to the one universe turning around the one earth.

This is a conclusion the ex-Thomist Bruno or bad Thomist Bruno had drawn out.

Note, St Robert Bellarmine had the displeasure of judging Bruno to the secular arm (in practise the stake) in 1600.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
8m ago
"Some 30 plus years later however Pope Paul V sent St. Cardinal Robert Bellarmine to question heliocentrism as compared to geocentrism and instructed him to tell Galileo to give reasons for and against heliocentrism based on his scientific observations as well as point out any possible support that may be evident within the Christian scriptures."

And he could not give any good ones.

"This is generally where the historical confusion begins Galileo took offense to the whole matter and began to act rebellious towards the church on the matter."

No, his trial in 1633 was not based on an attitude problem, saying that is simply Satanic, and involves a Molochist view of Church power.

His trial in 1633 was based on his theses that Sun is immobile centre of entire universe (formally heretic) and earth is turning around it and also around itself in a daily motion (at least erroneous).

Hans-Georg Lundahl
5m ago
"Not directly based on his theories but rather on his former attitude towards the church it was also evident that he was publishing versions of scripture that contained alterations in the book of Joshua where it speaks of the Sun standing still."

I don't think that is true at all, he had no printing press. What is true is, he made a heliocentric comment on Joshua 10. That one was examined already by St Robert Bellarmine.

And while St Robert did not condemn Galileo to abjure or burn, he did condemn Galileo's book very much on that basis.

No, it was not a fake Bible with an altered text to Joshua, it was a proposal as to what the text in Joshua meant, and that exegesis is necessary for any Heliocentric believer in that miracle.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
4m ago
“As a result he was put on house arrest the remainder of his life.”

After abjuring two theses, namely that the Sun is immbolie centre of the Universe and that the Earth moves.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
2m ago
“he did not teach that the sun was the center of the Solar System”

But that is what Giordano Bruno did, and he concluded along the lines of Prima via (as exposed in more detail in Contra Gentes) there were many immanent gods, one per solar system.

The Son being the Sun of our solar system.

The Holy Spirit being the immanent mover of our solar system.

Other solar systems having other gods, except for the overall creator, the Father.

So, teaching the Sun is centre of the Solar System is not less bad but more bad than Galileo’s position.

Other answer

Crowly Mathew Arackal
I am Christian Catholic.
Answered Nov 16, 2015
Catholic Church mainly objected his behaviour and attitude. Not his inventions.

Please check the link in the answer given by User [dead link]

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Just now
1633 sentence had little to say about his attitude and nothing about his inventions, but mainly focussed on two errors one of which was termed formally heretic.