Tuesday, March 25, 2025

Gospel against Cannibalism and Accusation thereof.


They want to NORMALIZE Cannibalism?!
Allie Beth Stuckey | 16 March 2024
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=d9cJkEYHxTg


I get the impression that the words of Jesus in Matthew 24 or a parallel were indeed euphemisms. "ate, drank, married and got married" (not the usual stuff for any of the verbs).

1:01 I have very studiously avoided being on government assistance.

I write. I consider the day when I get things into print as being when I can start to count income and when that's 3 times the rent per month or the rent for 24 months in advance ... I can have a place to live.

If you've heard I wear dress, that's false. If you heard I wear a costume, that's iffy. I do wear historic male dress, and while kilt would not in itself be offlimits, that's not what I wear.

1:56 As I mentioned my interpretation about the times of Noah, the fact that one bunch of Neanderthals have been found to be veggies and one other cannibals argues, to me, two things:

  • Neanderthals were pre-Flood, the just were veggies and the unjust added cannibalism (this was before Genesis 9:2)
  • Neanderthal doesn't directly equal Nephelim, as some of them were in fact veggies.


The method archaeologists use to find how some were perpetrators or victims of cannibalism is not too mysterious.

Neanderthals in Belgium have human genome in their dental calculus. Not so those in El Sidrón, who seem to have liked pine nuts.

Homo erectus on Java has for instance had heads cut off so the upper part can serve as cups, and some bones in Atapuerca are per genome or proteins human bones, but per splitting, the marrow has been sucked out.

Vampyrism is obviously less easy to detect once the flesh and skin of the neck have been rotted away. But if Henoch in Nod is ever dug up, I imagine we might find pictorial evidence.

3:22 Both funerary cannibalism and cannibalism of enemies have occurred.

They are different insofar as a dwelling place of cannibals will ...

  • contain victim split bones of divergent genomes if enemy cannibalism
  • contain victim bones of a consistent genome of funerary cannibalism.


Now, to be clear, I do not agree that either practise should be destigmatised, but the latter is somewhat less evil (unless involving euthanasia, in that case it's more evil).

4:31 Indeed. But do you get a certain smell of the science community denying the human body that whiff of the sacred?

Euthanasia, cremation, donating bodies to science, abortion, contraception, eugenics (by the way, the downtrodden victim in Buck v. Bell had a daughter named Vivian Dobbs, I find Dobbs v. Jackson a very fitting poetic justice), lobotomy, psychiatric drugs that debilitate, I get a real feeling, those guys may actually at heart be Gnostics.

Probably inherited from Protestantism as it has historically been (I'm aware you are not that type in these contexts).

8:57 Emblems and seals?

He didn't believe in the real presence?

It so happens, even if you said "the Catholic position implies cannibalism, but the Protestant is just symbolic" you just said yourself that actual cannibalism is seen as accursed even when it's just symbolic. So, one would have to say the Flesh and Blood can indeed be literal, provided there is a clear difference from cannibalism. There is.

  • The body is present where the substance of the bread was, i e under the accidents of bread, and the chewing or swallowing affects those accidents (starting with circumference) and do not hurt the actual body of Jesus, though it is there;
  • cannibalism is an act against a dead or dying person, but both at the Last Supper and now, it is the living flesh and living blood of the living Christ we receive.


Hence, there is no cannibalism in it.*

11:35 I would not agree with "tribal" it sounds as if the social fact of living "in a tribe" would by itself lead to barbarism.

It's a view point of the 19th C.

Meanwhile, the practise is demonic. I don't think one can be too offensive to demons.

That and human sacrifice. Take a look at the places demons chose to mislead people on, geometrically correlated places around the earth (a cross through the axis is what I've looked at) shows there are themes that the people just committing those things couldn't know.

Φιλολoγικά/Philologica: Black Magic in Shimao and Ur
https://filolohika.blogspot.com/2025/03/black-magic-in-shimao-and-ur.html


11:54 Just in case you think Catholics have been lazy about going to those peoples, check wiki for "Catholic Church in Papua New Guinea" and "Congregation of the Sacred Hearts of Jesus and Mary"

Monday, March 24, 2025

My situation, bis


HGL's F.B. writings: About My Situation · Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere: My situation, bis

Kennedy Hall is a Problem...Again...
Avoiding Babylon | 28 Oct. 2024
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MvGowvIvW_Q


1:11 His nonno happened to live in an era with more jobs and less supervision ...

3:21 No, the feeling of being oppressed is NOT Marxism.

Marxists have their ways of exploiting this feeling, but the feeling as such is not Marxism.

Marxists have exploited the victim status of Indian, Amerindian, populations.

But Pope Saint Pius X affirmed it.

LACRIMABILI STATU
ENCYCLICAL OF POPE PIUS X ON THE INDIANS OF SOUTH AMERICA TO THE ARCHBISHOPS AND BISHOPS OF LATIN AMERICA
https://www.vatican.va/content/pius-x/en/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-x_enc_07061912_lacrimabili-statu.html


Given the title, perhaps it's a good thing to stop talking of "cry-babies" ... "lacrimabilis" literally means "it's for crying out loud" ...

3:38 I am sorry, but I have very much NOT let victimhood mentality stop me from going forward.

I am on the contrary the victim of people who are actively pushing me back.

And if one man can possibly overcome one man, he rarely overcomes a whole bunch.

I have, very consistently, worked, writing. My oppressors are people who dislike my writing, and have diverse excuses for deflecting from the issue who's going to print my stuff.

1) You are just a snowflake, why are you so special, why should anyone read you? In fact you're a narcissist! (A word that's both used about Mozart and about the crookish husband in Gas Light)
2) Nobody's reading you (well, in February my blogs were viewed 4659 times per day and on March so far just 3080 times, so, part of the readers like to make this prophecy)
3) Your blogging isn't work, nobody's paying you (so far true, but not a physical necessity for the future, however "stop the victim mentality" is clearly one way of prolonging it)
4) You can't keep it up anyway, real writers need to be able to write every day (yes, I usually publish as much per day, roughly speaking, as Stephen King and Neil Gaiman write in raw, of which they delete some)
5) You can't be a pastor unless you're born again (I'm a Catholic essayist, not a Protestant pastor)
6) You can't be a monk and be so indiscrete about your consolations (I'm a Catholic essayist, not a prophetic monk)
7) Stop this victim mentality, it's Marxist (you are in fact helping precisely Marxists to persecute me).

4:57 I'm one of the older guys, struggling as if I were 18 to 20.

6:02 Some of those young men could actually start a business to print my blog posts as books or magazines.

Given the conditions, it could even be lots of many small companies, giving jobs to many ...

6:47 My struggle of getting a woman is two fold.

1) I am regularly being kept too tired.
2) I am also trying to be faithful to a girl who has at least strongly given the impression of not being faithful to me ...

Both compounded by people who are telling each other I need to get things together. I e who denigrate what I'm actually doing.

If a MUSLIM says I don't work, I get it. He wouldn't like me to get paying readers when I say alcohol is licit and God is three in one. But what's YOUR problem?

1) If I don't complain, you assume I'm totally satisfied with my situation.
2) If I do complain, I have a victim mentality. Has anyone told you you have a leopard mentality?

Like the mentality of four leopard heads (Judaism, Islam, Puritan Protestantism, Freemasonry, I presume)?

A little about tactics ... see how William and Harry were forced to parade behind their mother's coffin:

Princess Diana's Brother Breaks Silence on Diana, Leaving Everyone Speechless
The Prime Expedition | 9 March 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j9vIhd3ODwU


How many have been similarily deceived about what I really want?

Too many, and they may at times have included my mother.

Language Related, Conlangs, Language Policy, Indo-European, Language Origin


Actually some time since I had a series of language related quora questions appear as a post here. Time for a new one:

Conlangs

Hans-Georg Lundahl shared
https://www.quora.com/profile/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2/One-could-add-that-while-Atlantean-is-fictitious-as-native-language-of-the-submarine-population-it-is-not-fictitious-a
Studied Latin (language) at Lund University
Jan 25 2025
One could add that, while Atlantean is fictitious as native language of the submarine population, it is not fictitious as vocabulary and grammar that are functional enough to write movie lines in.

That’s why linguists don’t refer to such things as “fictitious languages” plus the obvious that the term refers to sth else, to when not just the native language or whatever of a population doesn’t have that population, but when it doesn’t even have words and grammar.

Q I
What language is used in the Justice League and Aquaman movies to represent the Atlantean language? Is it English or a fictional language?
https://www.quora.com/What-language-is-used-in-the-Justice-League-and-Aquaman-movies-to-represent-the-Atlantean-language-Is-it-English-or-a-fictional-language/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
Studied Latin (language) at Lund University
Jan 25 2025
If it’s English, then Atlantean is a fictional language.

If it’s a “fictional language” it’s not fictional but constructed.

In the real novel by Gilbert Keith Chesterton, The Return of Don Quixote[1], there is a fictional play, Blondel the Troubadour. There are lines quoted from Blondel the Troubadour, and those lines are obviously real lines of poetry. But all the other lines of the play are fictional, because Chesterton didn’t write them and because the novel character supposed to have written the play doesn’t exist.

So, if what we hear in the movies (which I have not seen) is English, then Atlantean is fictional. If instead we hear some words of Atlantean, at least for those words Atlantean isn’t fictional but constructed.

Looking up the word “Atlantean language” it seems it’s actually constructed[2] , namely by Mark Okrand.[3] He probably didn’t construct a complete language, at least not yet, but he very probably constructed lots more of it than just what is heard or written in the films. The actors did take very real and not fictional language lessons in order to master, as comprehensible language, the lines they were saying in Atlantean.

Footnotes

[1] http://www.gkc.org.uk/gkc/books/Don_Quixote.txt
[2] Atlantean language - Wikipedia
[3] Marc Okrand - Wikipedia

Q II
Can a fictional language be created and used as a native tongue?
https://www.quora.com/Can-a-fictional-language-be-created-and-used-as-a-native-tongue/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Dec 3 2024
I think there was a child who was raised in Klingon.

So, he is a native speaker of Klingon, even if he quit using it at age five, so perhaps “was” would be more appropriate.

A conlang or constructed language for long is actually a better term. A language is “fictional” if it is stated in a fictional work as existing. It is constructed if it is actually shown. So, in Lord of the Rings Westron is a fictional language, consistently replaced with English, but Quenya is a constructed language, with a poem by Galadriel and an Oath of Elendil as actual samples.

Constructed languages can be constructed to the level of completion when one can use them, Esperanto is in principle no different from Quenya, and Esperanto is usable. And any language which one can use, one can also transmit to children.

Q III
How would you create a new language? What factors would you consider in designing its writing and pronunciation?
https://www.quora.com/How-would-you-create-a-new-language-What-factors-would-you-consider-in-designing-its-writing-and-pronunciation/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Oct 31 2024
Totally depends on what you would want it for.

Artlangs like Quenya or Black Speech, obviously a good portion of beauty or ugliness.

Auxiliary languages, and I’d priorise those spanning a region of related languages, the maximum matches and minimum dysmatches of words in the auxiliary language and any really occurring language of the region.

Language politics

Q IV
What language would be most beneficial for a Uyghur to learn?
https://www.quora.com/What-language-would-be-most-beneficial-for-a-Uyghur-to-learn/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
Studied Latin (language) at Lund University
23.III.2025
Normally Uyghur and Chinese, both.

Q V
Do you believe there will be a time when learning multiple languages is no longer necessary? If so, what language do you think will become the universal language and why?
https://www.quora.com/Do-you-believe-there-will-be-a-time-when-learning-multiple-languages-is-no-longer-necessary-If-so-what-language-do-you-think-will-become-the-universal-language-and-why/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Mar 14 2025
Learning multiple languages is already not necessary, it’s an option to get the opportunities that learning languages gives you, not a life necessity.

I do NOT believe that there will be a universal language, or, if there is, that it will totally replace the others.

God confused the languages because it served and still serves a purpose. And one is, preventing too much unity among those who disobey God, and another is, learning languages is an occasion for humility.

Q VI
How do professional linguists choose which endangered languages to study and preserve?
https://www.quora.com/How-do-professional-linguists-choose-which-endangered-languages-to-study-and-preserve/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
24.III.2025
Personal interest comes into what languages you study. Endangered or otherwise.

That and opportunity in which ones you preserve.

By the way, preservation of endangered languages is just one of the jobs you can do as a linguist. I don’t think you can speak of “professional linguist” but rather of “academic linguist” as the opposite of amateur linguist in my self description. Linguist is a competence, not exactly a job title. Though, obviously, any authority or company that uses linguists can make their job title for the relevant job “linguist” whether it’s a film maker helping to teach the actors a language or a missionary trying to translate the Bible into the latest discovered language that has no alphabet yet.

Q VII
When does linguistic evolution become acceptable in formal writing?
https://www.quora.com/When-does-linguistic-evolution-become-acceptable-in-formal-writing/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
24.III.2025
When it becomes used by a sufficient number of writers who are already considered competent.

Babel and Indo-European

Q VIII
Can you explain the difference between a proto language and a parent language?
https://www.quora.com/Can-you-explain-the-difference-between-a-proto-language-and-a-parent-language/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Dec 19 2024
When two or more languages are seen as related:

  • their parent language is whatever one really spoke before the splitting up;
  • their proto-language is whatever one reconstructs as their parent language, whether it coincides well or ill with it and whether they had a common parent language or not.


Parent language is also posited without splitting up. In the Old Norse period, Swedish and Icelandic were still pretty much the same language. Proto-Norse (which isn’t totally a proto-language as defined above, since it is attested) is its parent language. Koiné is the parent language of Dhimotiki, and would be so even if the Pontic split off didn’t exist.

Q IX
Is it true that all languages have a direct ancestor or original language, except for English which was derived from multiple languages?
https://www.quora.com/Is-it-true-that-all-languages-have-a-direct-ancestor-or-original-language-except-for-English-which-was-derived-from-multiple-languages/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Feb 3 2025
Most languages do have direct ancestors, including English.

Anglo-Saxon is the oldest ancestor of English we have in writing.

English isn’t a just total mixture of AS with Old Norse and Anglo-French, it’s AS taking on words and features (sometimes in basic grammar) of ON and AF. It’s Sprachbund, not language mixture. This is also a pretty common thing.

Between the Koiné Greek of Aristotle and Modern Greek, for instance, you have admixtures of Latin, Turkish, probably Albanian and Bulgarian too, and maybe more.

French descends from Latin, but has admixtures of Gaulish, Frankish, Arabic, and more recently other languages (I’d say Italian, Spanish, German loans are post-1500).

Russian descends from Old Russian or Old East Slavic, a language not directly attested as they wrote Church Slavonic, but indirectly shown when someone in a Church Slavonic text would insert an Old East Slavic name of a person or a place without translating. So do Ukrainian and Belarusian. Russian then has admixtures from Tataric and probably some Finno-Ugric languages that are not there in Ukrainian or Belarusian.

Feb 3 2025

Kaden Vanciel
Those languages mentioned are descendants of Proto-Indo-European if I may point out.

Feb 4 2025

Hans-Georg Lundahl
That is disputed.

They certainly are correctly classified as Indo-European, but there is some dispute whether Indo-European is a family, descending from a common proto-language, or a Sprachbund.

Q X
How do linguists decide which language family a heavily mixed language belongs to?
https://www.quora.com/How-do-linguists-decide-which-language-family-a-heavily-mixed-language-belongs-to/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
23.III.2025
Depends.

  1. Normally, you go with basic grammar, majority of words.
  2. But in some cases this can give equivocal results, Armenian was once, wrongly, considered part of the Persian or Iranian family. It has many loan words from Persian, and I suppose some of them are so old they don’t sound like modern Persian. Like “joy” and “royal” in English don’t sound like “joie” and “royal(e)” in French.


If you were digging for an occasion to argue for Indo-European family unity rather than all included language families starting as “heavily mixed languages” by each other and then separated from that neighbourly situation, well, the problem is, so much vocabulary is missing from each “branch of Indo-European” … For instance, take the words “father, mother, son, daughter, brother, sister” … There is only Proto-Indo-European and Germanic that has all six. Latin and Irish have other words for son and daughter, and Welsh has another word for father too. Greek has other words for brother and sister. Baltic and Slavic both have other words for father, Slavic has the “ther” ending sometimes replaced by “-ts” in masculine (like in the other word for father) and “ka” in feminine, so only sister ends in “r” …

It’s not an easy task to determine what the Indo-European word for “head” was, and I thought the situation was similar for “hand” but it turns out the Greek word is shared by Armenian and by Hittite, so it’s original. It’s “replaced by other words” (or never borrowed) in Celtic, Latin/Romance, Germanic, Balto-Slavic. The words one to ten, twenty, hundred, are similar across the board, but the teens and the tens above twenty are made in different ways. The word for thousand is different across the board, with Germanic sharing one with Balto-Slavic. The way the teens work are also similar between Baltic and the words “eleven” and “twelve” in Germanic, different in Slavic.

twelve or thirteen men

Polish: dwunastu lub trzynastu mężczyzn
Lithuanian: dvylika ar trylika vyrų

Germanic -l(e)ve(n) = Lithuanian -lika.

But we don't say **threlve, we say thirteen.

The Slavic like the Baltic is consistent from 11 to 19, and the Slavic ending is separate, the Germanic ending from 13 to 19 is separate.

In Greek and Latin, you simply add "and ten" or "ten" to the unit, so, basically Latin "eleven" is "oneteen" ...

Let's test twenty or thirty instead ...

Polish: dwudziestu lub trzydziestu mężczyzn
Lithuanian: dvidešimt ar trisdešimt vyrų (adds "ten" which would in Germanic and Latin be an addition rather than a multiplication)

If we compare the Polish endings for twelve and twenty, which is closer to "ten" ("dziesięć")?

dwunastu or dwudziestu?

Polish too adds "ten" which in Latin and Germanic would be addition. To be fair, it seems probable "dwunastu" is short for "dwu na dziestu" if we compare Ukrainian:

twelve or twenty
дванадцять або двадцять = dvanadtsyatʹ abo dvadtsyatʹ

So, Polish makes teens like Greek "one and ten" in Greek, "one on ten" in Polish.

One “clear marker” of Indo-European is verb endings, but Finnish has more Indo-European verb endings than Germanic, even at the oldest stage. And Germanic is, while Finnish isn’t Indo-European.

Q XI
Can speakers of Indo-European languages understand each other as if they were speaking one language?
https://www.quora.com/Can-speakers-of-Indo-European-languages-understand-each-other-as-if-they-were-speaking-one-language/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Mar 9 2025
Russian, Spanish and English are all Indo-European languages.

According to a certain theory, this means they all descend from Proto-Indo-European.

But according to how you select for what groups (I named Slavic, Romance and Germanic in my three examples) are Indo-European, this simply means they share certain key features. Or each a sufficient number from a larger list. These are NOT sufficient to understand each other.

Q XII
How do linguists trace the evolution of ancient languages to their modern descendants?
https://www.quora.com/How-do-linguists-trace-the-evolution-of-ancient-languages-to-their-modern-descendants/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
24.III.2025
Depends very much on whether they use documentation (like between Latin and French) or reconstruction (like between Proto-Indo-European and Proto-Italo-Celtic, Proto-Italo-Celtic and Proto-Italic, Proto-Italic and Old Latin).

When it comes to Latin to French, the period between Caesar and Alcuin is one where spoken language changes while the written retains basically the spelling of Caesar’s language, and the tracing is one of sound changes reflected in spelling mistakes. For the principle, imagine a version of English where no H is pronounced, but where people also don’t go to English schools. You could detect that by someone writing “hover the ill” instead of “over the hill” … From Alcuin on, there is a very brief gap of some decades before you get that first texts often considered as “written in Old French” (definitely not Classic Old French, some reassign them to Proto-Gallo-Romance …) namely Strassburg Oaths and Eulalia Sequence. And as, from Alcuin on, the spelling convention was fixed in Latin, the conventional relation of sound and spelling could be preserved instead of an old spelling from Eulalia and Roland up to the printing press.

When it comes to Proto-Indo-European to Latin, the method is very different, since the process (real or supposed) has no written traces, by the time we get to Old Latin it’s by definition already Latin.

You collect a number of languages supposed to descend from Proto-Indo-European. In each clear family (like Germanic or Italic) you chose one or more of the oldest language forms (in Italic you’d prefer Latin and extinct Umbrian over French or Italian). You look at things that are identic or similar in meaning and reasonably similar in sound. Second person in -S (though in lots of Old Germanic languages, it could look like -ST instead)? Italic, Greek, Germanic …. a word meaning “carry” (in general) or “deliver a baby”? Fero, phero, bära, ge-bären, beirim (Old Irish biru?), bhárati …

You make a large collection of those things, you hope they have been inherited by the original mother language, since that is your working hypothesis, you try to work out how it sounded in the original language, and in this connection you need two things:

  • a proto-form
  • sound changes that lead from the proto-form to the forms that are attested.


So, for the verb mentioned, and it’s one of the flag ships for Indo-European scholarship, take this approach, first just use the stem:

*bher- → bhar- (Old Indian, Sanskrit)
*bher- → *βer- → *φer- → fer- (Latin)
*bher- → *βer- → *ber- → lengthened in second last syllable : bär- (Swedish), ge-bär- (German), bear (English) …

Then do the same thing for the endings that correspond. Spoiler, not all endings do correspond, though many do.

Q XIII
Can the phonology of Proto-Indo-European be reconstructed for a specific reconstructed morpheme, such as 'to be'?
https://www.quora.com/Can-the-phonology-of-Proto-Indo-European-be-reconstructed-for-a-specific-reconstructed-morpheme-such-as-to-be/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Dec 4 2024
Yes and no.

  • If you assume that PIE existed
  • and if you take one of the reconstruction models


THEN you can reconstruct precisely the phonology of a specific morpheme.

Q XIV
What can ancient writing systems tell us about how humans think and communicate?
https://www.quora.com/What-can-ancient-writing-systems-tell-us-about-how-humans-think-and-communicate/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
24.III.2025
Usually, a single language has one writing system, rarely two (Old Swedish has been written both in Runes and in the Latin alphabet). If any at all.

One writing system can be used by more than one language or language family. In that case, there is always cultural contact either present or at least past.

So, for instance, if prior to Göbekli Tepe people from Spain to Indonesia repeated 32 not obviously pictorial signs, and if after Göbekli Tepe you find very different types of proto-writing popping up in Mohenjo-Daro and Greece and perhaps elsewhere, we can conclude that before Göbekli Tepe there was a single language or at least languages in contact with each other, and after Göbekli Tepe a discontinuity both with that past and with each other in different places.

Q XV
What are some of the earliest known languages? Is there evidence to support the theory that all languages evolved from one common language?
https://www.quora.com/What-are-some-of-the-earliest-known-languages-Is-there-evidence-to-support-the-theory-that-all-languages-evolved-from-one-common-language/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Oct 31 2024
A few things to keep in mind.

  • The idea all languages over the world, from Chinese to Kiché evolved from a single language, called “Proto-World” by adherents should not be confused with the idea that all Indo-European languages (46 % speak them as first language over the world) evolved from Proto-Indo-European. The strictly linguistic evidence for the latter is not uncontrovertible, Trubetskoy who founded Balkan linguistics was against it, and the linguistic evidence for the former is obviously much more slender than that. One adherent (Merrit Ruhlen, I think, or he could have cited earlier adherents) reconstructed 32 root words he considered as recurring all over the world, while for Proto-Indo-European Pokorny lists 2,222 main entries. To be clear, not all of those are evidenced from all “branches of Indo-European” some get only three out of ten big ones, and not always even plus a few small obscure ones.
  • There is theological evidence that the actual first language was Hebrew, and that most non-Hebrew or at least all non-Semitic and plenty of non-Hebrew Semitic ones did not naturally evolve, but split off from Hebrew by miraculous change, see Genesis 11, yes, this is how the text is taken by Church Fathers and Scholastics who have commented on it. The Hebrew spoken immediately after the Flood, before Babel need not have been strictly letter for letter the same that Moses would write down 1447 years later if it was at the Exodus event he began writing. But it would still be at least as recogniseable as Old English from Beowulf or King Alfred is seen from Modern English. Probably a bit more due to longer lifespans.
  • Evolution believers think that human language began to exist some time between “at least” half a million years ago “as far back as” in Homo erectus and as late as Homo Sapiens only, around the time of the Neanderthal extinction or even pushing back to 90 000 years ago. Compared to that, the earliest languages we have now are recent. There is nothing in language development since these earliest attested languages (they obviously think Sumerian is older than any recognisable form of Hebrew), whether they survived or not, to remotely illustrate the ideas of Evolution believers that language as we know human language developed from “more primitive” predecessors. The “language of the great apes” in Tarzan is strictly speaking fan fiction on evolutionary linguistics. It has no support in actual historic linguistics. So, all “evidence” for human languages developing from different strands of hominins independently or from a single strand are speculations in the shadow field evolutionary linguistics, no support at all in linguistics proper.


To the first question. As I said, Evolution believers would say Sumerian was spoken as early as 3500 BC (a carbon date I consider as equivalent to a real date between 2039 and 2022 BC), and written down only 900 years later, and obviously Hebrew even in the form of Proto-Sinaitic is not recorded in writing earlier than well after that.

Wikipedia has an excellent entry on that. List of languages by first written record.[1]

Footnotes

[1] List of languages by first written account - Wikipedia

Q XVI
Did ancient civilizations have a common language or did they speak different languages and were isolated from each other?
https://www.quora.com/Did-ancient-civilizations-have-a-common-language-or-did-they-speak-different-languages-and-were-isolated-from-each-other/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Oct 31 2024
  1. Mankind in the Upper Palaeolithic could have had a common language, as Genevieve von Petzinger found 32 symbols recurring everywhere from Spain to Indonesia. Of these, the hashtag has been found in Neanderthal caves.
  2. For Göbekli Tepe, we have no written remains at all.
  3. Proto-writing after Göbekli Tepe seems diverse.
  4. Deciphered writings even later definitely are diverse, and record different languages.
  5. Nevertheless, while Egyptians, Sumerians, Akkadians, Hatti, Hittites, Mitanni, Elamites had different languages, they were not isolated, but had already established relationships using the skills of bilingual people.


Here is how I read this, as a Christian:

  1. Pre-Flood and early post-Flood mankind, up to the death of Noah 350 years after the Flood all spoke Hebrew. Neanderthals would have before the Flood spoken a dialect in which AH and OH didn’t occur. Or at least those with flat roof skulls, a feature posing a problem to pronounce such vowels.
  2. 350 to 401 after the Flood, the elites from all around the world were drafted by Nimrod to Babel. He had no use for writing, neither had his colleague over in Jericho.
  3. In 401 when Phalec was born, or rather somewhat before it, perhaps as much as seven years, mankind was breaking up bc of the confusion of tongues. Hence his name, as the seven years up to his birth had seen men divide more and more. The ones who tried to write afterwards were “reinventing” the lost “wheel” and coming up with new shapes.
  4. Once writings are made that we can still or at least again read, the languages were obviously already different.
  5. And these civilisations with deciphered writings started out so late after Babel that they had begun to reconnect through bilinguals. All of above writings come from the times of Joseph in Egypt or later.


Some will pretend this doesn’t make sense with the time scale, well, it does if carbon dates are inflated and more and more the further back we go, past a certain point which I consider the fall of Troy.

Language Origin

Q XVII
What is the logic behind how spoken language works? How were noises and sounds associated with things and ideas to form the "word"?
https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-logic-behind-how-spoken-language-works-How-were-noises-and-sounds-associated-with-things-and-ideas-to-form-the-word/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-2


Answer requested by
Lucas Gomas

Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
Mar 10 2025
The logic is, it is mainly notional.

You mainly predicate one notion about one other notion.

This means, the phrase is nearly always at least two morphemes.

Also, in order to have a sufficient number of morphemes, for this to work, the morpheme is nearly always at least two phonemes, not just one noise, but a number of them in a specific order.

You cut things with a knife. You tuck someone in a blanket. Cut and tuck contain the same three phonemes, but not in the same order.

The next question you ask is how this came to happen. Well, for those who insist it happened by evolution, no one knows how. For those who insist it didn’t happen by evolution, some of us know God gave this as a gift to Adam on the very first day he was alive.

Other

Q XVIII
What is the most effective way to understand an ancient text from a different language without having to learn all related languages beforehand?
https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-most-effective-way-to-understand-an-ancient-text-from-a-different-language-without-having-to-learn-all-related-languages-beforehand/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
amateur linguist
25.III.2025
Feast of Annunciation
  1. To learn THAT language.
  2. or to read in translation.


In either case, you are perfectly entitled to inform yourself about ancient translations, if any.

“Battologein” means “stutter-speak” and while the Vulgate picks on about the probable intended sense of “holding speaches nervously” by stating “use verbosity” the Syriac and Coptic, as I have been told on Quora, translate “stutter” …. not a single translation prior to the heresiarch Calvin uses “vain repetitions” as a translation.

Sunday, March 23, 2025

Freemarket Holodomor on Ireland, 19th C.


New blog on the kid: Is Unlimited Capitalism Freedom and Individual Responsibility? · Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere: Freemarket Holodomor on Ireland, 19th C.

Why didn't Irish people eat fish during the Great Famine
Irish History Podcast | 20 March 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=17RE_G-DJzg


3:46 That's certainly not true according to the stated profession of Molly Malone.

A society with no one able to fish will not have fish mongers. Arguably, while getting up cockles and mussels is perhaps a bit more complicated, they know how to do that too.

5:36 OK, UK rules Ireland as part of itself, and wants to prefer "itself" over part of itself?

Or did it perhaps want to prefer other parts, with more Protestants in them?

Saturday, March 22, 2025

On Adam and Eve and their Whenabouts


Correcting Brandon Robbins on Some Things Flood-Related · On Adam and Eve and their Whenabouts

Scientific Evidence That Adam & Eve Existed?! (Priest Reacts)
Father David Michael Moses | 21 March 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jVM49DgEeiE


0:32 Technically correct. De Genesi ad litteram libri XII, the discussion starts somewhere in book IV, covers all of book V and ends near the beginning of book VI.

But two caveats.

1) He never said the creation of a complete universe could be considerably longer than 6 * 24 hours, he just said it probably was considerably shorter, i e one moment.
2) Even if you extrapolate, either that the 6 days could be longer periods (as Fr. Fulcran Vigouroux did) or that there was a gap before the 6 * 24 hours, and long periods before that gap, (as Cardinal Wiseman did), from the creation of Adam and Eve on, this still leaves you with Biblical chronology. Like Genesis 5 says, according to text versions a few versions between 1300 + and 2262 years up to the Flood. Like Genesis 11 says, according to text versions, 292, 942 or 1070 years from Flood to birth of Abraham, and I think I've seen Josephus go some century short of 942 years.

And in case you wanted to extrapolate further freedoms from St. Augustin's view of the Creation days, that's a no-go. In City of God (which, while leaving me Roman Catholic, converted me back to YEC, as I had been up to a few years after my conversion), you find he's pretty strict on taking Genesis 5 and 11 literally.

2:00 I recomend you don't take the 200,000 years literally.

Those scientists have been checking genetic changes with the understanding of populations always being fairly big.

By contrast, if you go to the Biblical story, the first generations after Adam and Eve are a bottleneck, the time after the Flood was a bottleneck, and for many populations after Babel the first time after this split was a bottleneck too.

JI80
@ji8044
LOLOLOLOL

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@hglundahl
@ji8044 What's funny?

You do agree that with sciences, we need to consider scientific methods, and for some there are weaknesses, don't you?

For a mutation to spread in a group of 72 men plus women and children is obviously faster than for it to spread in a population of "at least 10 000" like the scientists count, those in question. This number 72 men etc. is part of the post-Flood bottleneck ending in Babel, followed by smaller bottlenecks after Babel.


4:08 The huge majority of the saints were Young Earth Creationists and Geocentrics.

I'm modelling my intellectual life on that (this includes St. Augustine and St. Thomas).

4:28 Y-chromosome Adam is also known as Noah.

Mitochondrial Eve was the last common female ancestor of the three daughters in law. Probably later than Eve.

Neanderthals have different Y-chromosomes and mitochondriae, they descend from Adam and Eve too.

Correcting Brandon Robbins on Some Things Flood-Related


Correcting Brandon Robbins on Some Things Flood-Related · On Adam and Eve and their Whenabouts

The SHOCKING Truth About NOAH & the ARK
Brandon Robbins | 19 March 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iwIa88vZ6wA


1:35 Genesis 5:29 fulfilled after the Flood.

This is when we have the Upper Palaeolithic. Lower Palaeolithic would be pre-Flood Neanderthal cultures, relating to the Nodian civilisation as Indians to Versailles. Meaning Indians like Chingachgook, not Indians like Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah. However, Upper Palaeolithic was really hunting gathering as common condition of man, except Noah did some hobby farming (with viticulture).

2:49 I think you are wrong here.

I think Noah was not a Nodian, so it refers to Genesis 3:17.

If it had been Genesis 4:11 to 12, it would have made more sense if Noah's family had been Cainites, which they weren't. Also, an earth that for centuries yielded no crop would have, by the Flood, nothing to get new crops from. Also, Genesis 5:29 presupposes that "we are labouring" (which they wouldn't have been if the earth had ceased yielding crops) and does not refer to oneselves as cursed, as per Genesis 4:11, but to the earth as cursed, as per Genesis 3:17.

3:38 Reproducing and eating from the land were done pre-Flood too.

Even Cain ate from the land, just he wasn't able to till it himself. He had to barter for whatever fruit of the ground he was used to from before.

Is the land without crops from 130 / 230 post-Creation to 1656 / 2262 post-Creation from Book of Yasher? I can't recall it from Josephus.

5:17 Genesis 7:11 Would you agree with me and lots of other YEC that the splitting open affected not only water flow up to form a global Ocean, but also lava, to form lots of volcanic activity during the Flood?

6:49 We have, apart from Noah's story in the Bible with its prequels and apart from Mahabharata (which is highly deformed in theology, but gives details for the action in Genesis 6:11), no indication of what people in Noah's days believed.

Ancient Near East sources outside certain Genesis chapters are post-Babel.

Also, we must not suppose that the Bible expresses things in incorrect beliefs, if the Bible says there were windows in the sky, there were.

I'd reconstruct the physical factuality of these in this way:

1) Waters above or mostly gas, either H2O or, at least as typical H2.
2) The windows opening describes a level barrier between a thicker oxygen layer and a thicker hydrogen layer giving way to a mixing of the two gasses, appropriately to Oxyhydrogen (also referred to as Brown's gas, though the meaning of this phrase carries inaccurate notions of chemistry). At the first flash or sometimes meteorite (like in Yucatan, but not exclusively), this catches fire or explodes and adds water to the water cycle.

Note also, "vaulted dome" is arguably a very bad mistranslation of to stereoma or ha raqia' ... or you would have to assume that during the Flood, the world changed shape, as Tolkien wrote in the account of the sinking of Numenor. As he was a Christian, he was probably on the side also looking at ways to make Genesis make sense from his Old Earth perspective (which was allowed but not mandatory in Catholicism in his time, and at least up to 1992, and still isn't mandatory , if "John Paul II" wasn't the true Pope).

7:30 You have mis-given the reference. The actual one, Genesis 6:4, need not translate "and also afterwards"

Here is Douay Rheims:

Now giants were upon the earth in those days. For after the sons of God went in to the daughters of men, and they brought forth children, these are the mighty men of old, men of renown
[Genesis 6:4]

Probably the words you describe as "and also after that, when" could be described as "verily, after the occasion when" ...

But even if we accepted the translation in King James
There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

It is still not necessary to assume that "after that" means post-Flood. Not as to the specific nephelim giants.

8:00 I think you are hasty about taking Numbers as proof for survival.

And they spoke ill of the land, which they had viewed, before the children of Israel, saying: The land which we have viewed, devoureth its inhabitants: the people, that we beheld, are of a tall stature There we saw certain monsters of the sons of Enac, of the giant kind: in comparison of whom, we seemed like locusts
[Numbers 13:33-34]

The ones who described Sons of Enac as "nephelim and descendants of nephelim" were weakhearted people, not persons whose judgement could be trusted.

One can indeed imagine Moses knew they were lying by them presuming the nephelim had survived. Anakim were giants, but not Nephelim.

8:56 I agree on the sentiment.

In 2001, when I began my carreere as internet writer, and one of my themes already back then was Young Earth Creationism, I had no idea I would return to Genesis 10 and 11 and find them matching detail after detail in Göbekli Tepe.

9:10 I can so far neither endorse nor refute your book. It's arguably incomplete, in scope or interpretation, or you would be Catholic, but beyond that, I have so far no clue.

Friday, March 21, 2025

Allie Beth Stuckey Revisited


What’s Behind Brett Cooper's & Candace Owens’ Reaction to Daily Wire's CEO Departure? | Ep 1158
Allie Beth Stuckey | 20.III.2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aEEQK1US7gY


13:39 The abuse was obviously unacceptable, but at 12 she was not a child.

At 12 (and some months) 50 % of young ladies can become pregnant. A person who can become pregnant is not a male, and equally not a child.

16:10 A child may not be able to consent, but at 12, when as said a woman is no longer a child, consent to marriage and therefore also consent to premarital sex has been considered valid consent all over Christian history.

In the 19th C. in response to lots of girls getting trapped in prostitution (as if that were more important than marriage) England raised the age of consent to 13.

In the early 20th C. the Progressive Era, the US involved several states raising the age for marriage to 21 or 18.

EmeryShae
@EmeryShae
Are you nuts? This didn’t happen in the 19th century. Laws were in place. She was absolutely a child and it’s concerning to me that you want to prove otherwise.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@hglundahl
@EmeryShae You may not be nuts, but you are IGNORANT of history.

The Classic laws of marital age in England and colonies (including famous 13 ones) were saying for girls they had to wait to 12, or on other views just to 10. There were parallel and contradictory laws in England.

On the continent, prior to the French Revolution, and Reformations in some other countries, or even after Reformation, depending on country a girl could be married by 12 (France, Spain) or possibly only 14 (Savoy, I think, but could be wrong).

Check out Romeo and Juliet, and read it carefully. Romeo is an adult. He is able to kill in a duel (and that's what puts him into a feud with Juliet's family). The play starts when Juliet has 14 days left until she wwas going to be 14. Her mother tells her that at that age she was already married, I think even already a mother.

That was perfectly legal in Verona as elsewhere. Romeo's love was not forbidden because he was what you would consider a pedophile, but because he was in a feud with the family of his desired bride.


22:24 The Gates of Hell will not prevail against exactly what Church?

You know lots of Protestants (and lots of total non-Christians) have hoped that all of Catholicism comes tumbling down over certain things.

Were you one of them?

24:48 I am rather thankful for statutes of limitation being other than Oklahoma in several parts of Europe, including France.

27:26 There is exactly one justice that take up crimes however long ago.

It's (if I recall correctly) upcoming in the valley of Josaphath.

Romans 13 means that criminals currently unrepentant and continuing should certainly be liable to get charged, but it doesn't mean a man who is likely to have repented a long time ago should be dug up years after the crime, when the victim is at no danger and when there is no new victim.

I am no fan of the Wiesenthal Center, who seem to have been involved in getting Demjanjuk to court in Israel. In the 80's, like forty years after the alleged crime (his implication was disputed, and an Israeli court of appeal actually cleared him at one point) was over.

29:02 I certainly consider her point valid about coming forth.

41:41 Oh, your husband's name is Timothy ... if he reads appropriate epistles by St. Paul, he might end up Catholic.

50:17 Jews are not free from all faults, and if someone says "you dirty Jew" it's not my style, I happen to have Jewish relatives, but it's also not a thing I can write off as totally un-Christian.

In fact, there is spiritual uncleanness in rejecting Christ (like the Jews do), in fake accepting him, while rejecting His Church (which to various degrees Muslims, Protestants and Freemasons do).

If you wish someone to get clean of a spiritual uncleanness, perhaps stating "you dirty X" is preferrable over wishing someone minimum five years in prison decades after the crime.

51:03 When as a child I branded on a piece of wood I long kept "Jesus is Lord" I did not know the full implication of the words.

I wasn't Catholic yet.

I knew Jesus is Lord of the Universe, I knew Jesus is Lord over my life, whether I'm faithful or not.

I did not know Jesus is Lord over one specific Church, which He refuses to abandon.

I did not know that Jesus is Lord over human society.

These two dimensions are resumed in "Christ is King" since His Kingship over the Jews is not just exercised in Heaven, but for 2000 years has been exercised in the Christian population of Palestine, and for lots of these years has been exercised in Catholic States.

Now, lots of people who state "Christ is King" are in fact lamenting the loss of Catholic States and there are in fact Jewish contributions to this loss. I would say even to 19th C. Nationalisms. It's a safe bet that in 1864, Jews had a preference for Prussia over Austria. It's a very safe bet that in 1870 Jews had a preference for Savoy over Austria, Naples and the Papal States.

It's highly probable that in Mexico at a certain time they preferred Benito Juárez and US meddling over the Austrian Emperor of Mexico.

That's why I find it obliging on me to state "Christ is King" ...

59:15 You are aware that Hitler was a part time supporter of Zionism?

There are pictures of boats setting off to Palestine under double flag, Israeli flag (not yet official) and swastika.

Obviously, Protesting Jewish recitals is not the brightest thing to do, I'd prefer them supporting Palestinian ones (unless Trump bans those).

adding:

The 'Saint' Who was Excommunicated and Executed | Girolamo Savonarola
Mere Tradition with Kennedy Hall | 20 March 2025
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YUXOUTjG9ZM


12:33 I seem to recall the contemporary version of Hail Mary is his.

In St. Thomas' time, the prayer ended with the name Jesus, as can be indirectly seen from St. Lewis of Montfort's Second method, when the mystery is inserted into the Hail Mary after that in a relative clause.

He added the final prayer, which already existed separately and is actually used separately by the Orthodox.