Thursday, November 14, 2019

Bible and Greek Myth (Other Answer, Own Comments)


Bible and Greek Myth (Own Answer on Quora) · Bible and Greek Myth (Other Answer, Own Comments) · More on Greek Myth and on the Bible

Same Q:
Why do Biblical literalists cite the Bible as a historical record, but not count Greek mythology as historical record?
https://www.quora.com/Why-do-Biblical-literalists-cite-the-Bible-as-a-historical-record-but-not-count-Greek-mythology-as-historical-record


Toni Shuma
Christian
Answered Oct 17, 2011
Originally Answered:
How is it possible to cite the Bible as a historical record, but not count Greek mythology as historical record?

I believe that the most historically reliable document from Greek mythology is the Iliad, so I will base my answer on this document. I'm not an historian, so I look forward to additional answers, but here is my attempt at answering your question.

The first factor is historical accuracy: There is an ongoing debate as to how much of the Iliad is historical fact & how much is myth. I was once taking a course on Ancient History when they pointed out that some of the armor and weapons described in the Iliad are historically accurate to the time period of the battle (& would constitute the only written historical record of armor from that time period!) Yet right alongside the accurate information there is wildly inaccurate information such as anachronistic armor and weapons from later time periods. We can understand from this that oral traditions about the Battle of Troy (and other ancient battles) morphed and new heroes and pieces were added.

The Bible is not like this. We don't see wildly inaccurate stories & a hodgepodge of details that don't match with the particular time period where the events are said to take place. I think it is likely the Iliad was based on some historical fact when the oral tradition first started, but unlike the Bible we see clear evidence of the Iliad changing over time as new stories were added.

Are the Gospels Accurate Historical Books?
http://www.seekthetruth.org/gospels.html


The second factor is authenticity: If we know stories were added to the Iliad later, then we know the entire work is not the work of an eyewitness. This makes the Iliad more like a "fairy tale" and less like a record of history. Fairy tales and oral traditions are works of a society, not an individual. They are added to over time and give us great insight into the values and fears of a culture, but they are not useful as records of actual fact. Contrast this to the gospel accounts which contain many eyewitness details & do not contain the historical inaccuracies like I mentioned above.
One example - The Name Test:

New Evidence the Gospels were Based on Eyewitness Accounts
Peter J. Williams
https://www.bethinking.org/is-the-bible-reliable/new-evidence-the-gospels-were-based-on-eyewitness-accounts


The third factor is the manuscript evidence: How accurate is the transmission of the information we have from the events to the present day? The biggest difference I can think of is that 500 years passed between the events described in the Iliad and the first existing copy that we have of the text. Compare that to a less than 100 year span between the first full copy of the New Testament and the events of Jesus's life. Also, we have fewer copies of the Iliad than the New Testament, and the copies that we have of the Iliad are less accurate and less consistent than the New Testament manuscripts. So we can trust the version of the story of Jesus's life that we're getting has had less time to evolve into myth via oral tradition & less possibility of corruption than the Iliad.

Manuscript evidence for superior New Testament reliability
by Matt Slick | 12/10/08
http://carm.org/manuscript-evidence


There are, of course, other ways to determine the historical accuracy of a document:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_method

Hans-Georg Lundahl
29m ago
“Yet right alongside the accurate information there is wildly inaccurate information such as anachronistic armor and weapons from later time periods.”

So? Precisely like bad theology (idolatrous such) that does not preclude historicity of events. Note, I am talking about historicity as opposed to fictionality or symbolicity, not exact degree of historic accuracy.

One little extreme in this respect, anachronism, it seems all Mycenaean palaces had been destroyed earlier than the relevant level of Troy.

So, when Telemachus is received in the “palace of Pylos” we can presume it was a tent or a later more modest and less permanent type of building than the archaeological palace of Pylos.

Speaking of which, since Troy had been mighty and basically capital of Luwians, the probable destroyers of Hattusha, it is very possible the war was kind of a retaliation for destruction of Mycenaean palaces - but waiting until they took one extra bad move, like the enlevement of another king’s wife, so as to be sure to have the gods on their side.

Other inaccuracies would involve transfer of things concerning Hittites (and perhaps battle of Kadesh with its clear presence of chariot fights) to war of Troy.

“There are, of course, other ways to determine the historical accuracy of a document”

This answers about relative accuracy, but not about the categorisation of (relevant parts of) “Greek myth” as historic record, in opposition to entertaining fiction.

“If we know stories were added to the Iliad later, then we know the entire work is not the work of an eyewitness. This makes the Iliad more like a "fairy tale" and less like a record of history.”

No, historical witness at second hand is still historical document, while fairy tale is made for entertainment. We have Second Punic war from Livy and from authors depending on him, and he lived as removed from First Punic War nearly as Homer from Trojan War. His distance from Second Punic War is about half or a bit more of Homer’s from Trojan one.

Rumpelstilzkin and Little Red Riding Hood are fairy tales, Richard the Lion-Hearted in Dürnstein is not a fairy tale, it’s a local legend. Local legends are basically historic, though accuracy may vary and some apocryphal such are “fairy tales in disguise”.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
24m ago
“The biggest difference I can think of is that 500 years passed between the events described in the Iliad and the first existing copy that we have of the text.”

No, about 400 years between events and traditionally attributed redaction.

With events and first actual copy we have, all copies of the Iliad are Anno Domini.

So, more like 1200 years to even partial fragmentary copies. But that matches Caesar’s conquest of Gaul and redaction compared to oldest manuscript of Corpus Caesareum, including obviously De Bello Gallico.

Very early manuscripts for Gospels are not the standard ancient history accuracy test, they are very exceptionally good guarantees of accuracy for ancient history.

Bible and Greek Myth (Own Answer on Quora)


Bible and Greek Myth (Own Answer on Quora) · Bible and Greek Myth (Other Answer, Own Comments) · More on Greek Myth and on the Bible

Q
Why do Biblical literalists cite the Bible as a historical record, but not count Greek mythology as historical record?
https://www.quora.com/Why-do-Biblical-literalists-cite-the-Bible-as-a-historical-record-but-not-count-Greek-mythology-as-historical-record/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Quora Question Details Bot
Aug 8, 2017
We have clear records on Homer and Paul each writing texts that account for tales of miracles. Why is Paul's work considered by some to be a historical records, while Homer's is not?

Is this just a logical fallacy on the part of Biblical Christians, or is there something in the definition they use that separates the two sets of texts?

Same could be asked for many other texts that have clear literary/historical backgrounds, but cite the stories of religions other than Christianity (e.g. the Koran, Book of Dede Korkut, Prose Edda, etc.)

Yesterday

Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
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Today

Hans Georg Lundahl
none / apprx Masters Latin and Greek, Lund University
Answered 1 h ago
For the record, I am Biblical literal inerrantist (literalist might also be taken as excluding all meanings apart from the literal, which I do not, I just believe that the literal sense is always inerrant in the original manuscript of the hagiographer, so called autograph and that the correct reading cannot have been totally lost for any verse through copy mistakes).

And I do believe much of “Greek mythology” is historic record, even if seen through a faulty since idolatrous lense and the supernatural and parts of the natural perhaps too attributed to fake gods.

Bible and Mythology are Greek names for two collections, the Bible of texts and the Mythology of stories. They are names given by the adherents themselves.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Original author
1 h ago
“We have clear records on Homer and Paul each writing texts that account for tales of miracles. Why is Paul's work considered by some to be a historical records, while Homer's is not?”

I don’t know of any part in Homer where a miracle need be presumed.

Those where a “miracle” of some kind would be an at least likely explanation may have to do with demonic miracles.

When Ulysses changed appearance from old to man in his strength, I am not sure whether there was a quick dropping of masks covering the face (as Chinese do) or the work of demons.

It is not an indication that the work is not historic.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Original author
1:57 pm
Detail: “and Paul each writing texts that account for tales of miracles.”

The NT texts with miracles are not by St. Paul, even the miracles concerning him are mostly by St. Luke in Acts. Excluding very brief references to the Resurrection which is more fully treated in Gospels, mainly, and some reference to his receiving revelations.

Since attributing Christianity to St. Paul is popular among Muslims, was the one posing the question as specified in comment a Muslim? (Or ex-Muslim, see end of his comment, and I wrote this some hour after seeing the whole comment)

Scientists Suck at History of Science


The excellent physics didactitian "Tibees" is exposing some physics students to a physics exam from 1888 here in this video, and in it you see they prove my point:

Physics students react to 1888 exam
Tibees | 13.XI.2019
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7A1aBe0C1jc


One thing I note immediately is they suck at history of science.

  • 1) Before Boltzmann and they didn't believe in atoms ... except they did (even if it wasn't Bohr's model)
  • 2) "when was the first camera"


"The essential elements—a silver-plated surface sensitized by iodine vapor, developed by mercury vapor, and "fixed" with hot saturated salt water—were in place in 1837."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Photography#Invention

Sounds like some decades before 1888, wasn't it? If you read on, Talbot perfected calotype in 1840, also nearly five decades before the exam.

I can't find a useful diagram of a 19th C. camera online right now, but the reason would be, gaslight necessitated a longer exposure than was feasible for people without moving at all.

5:27 "Michael Faraday FRS (/ˈfærədeɪ, -di/; 22 September 1791 – 25 August 1867) was an English scientist who contributed to the study of electromagnetism and electrochemistry."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michael_Faraday

In St. Thomas Aquinas' day, iron was earth influenced by Mars and in the case of magnets, it was influenced by Venus as well.

So this is way after the time when "it's a bunch of metal that has those properties" ... if ever there was such a time.

And, no, Faraday dying in 1867 was not 20th C.

6:14 "they didn't even have one"

Check wiki:

"The Bell System was the system of companies, led by the Bell Telephone Company and later by AT&T, which dominated the telephone services industry in North America from 1877 to 1984"

Yeah, right, 1877 was eleven years before this exam, so that was already a commercial or public service, not just experiments.

A membrane is set before someone's mouth, when he speaks it moves. A magnet is attached to it, affecting induction and therefore strength of electric current, the electric current is transmitted to the other phone where an electromagnet pulls and repels a magnet in another membrane, just like in a loudspeaker, except the receiving end membrane being held to the ear is much smaller than a loudspeaker. As the electric current changes intensity, the membrane vibrates and those vibrations reconstitute the sound to the air and to the ear.

Wednesday, November 13, 2019

Lifespans of Age of Discovery (Methodology, given on Quora)


Q
How was life during the Age of Discovery?
https://www.quora.com/How-was-life-during-the-Age-of-Discovery/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Answer requested by
Dylan Pancracio

Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 3h ago
First we check when that was ...

The Age of Discovery, or the Age of Exploration (approximately from the beginning of the 15th century until the middle of the 17th century),

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Age_of_Discovery

1400 - 1650.

EDIT : I seem to have mistaken “how” for “how long” … so following answer is about lifespans. Well, that is one aspect of how life was then. (End of edit.)

Next we check life spans from these times.

Start with births of 1400:

January 13 – Infante John of Portugal, the Constable (d. 1442)
May 19 – John Stourton, 1st Baron Stourton, English baron (d. 1462)
July 26 – Isabel le Despenser, Countess of Worcester, English noble (d. 1439)
December 25 – John Sutton, 1st Baron Dudley, Lord Lieutenant of Ireland (d. 1487)
date unknown:
James Tuchet, 5th Baron Audley (d. 1459)
Luca della Robbia, Florentine sculptor (d. 1482)
Isabella, Duchess of Lorraine (d. 1453).
Richard Neville, 5th Earl of Salisbury, English politician (d. 1460)
Owen Tudor, Welsh courtier (d. 1461)
Rogier van der Weyden, Dutch painter (or 1399) / (1399 or 1400 – 18 June 1464)
Hans Multscher, German painter and sculptor (d. 1467)

I have omitted one who lived past 70 years, since her death year is unknown. For Rogier, I had to go to the article to find out the death year.

1401

March 27 – Albert III, Duke of Bavaria-Munich (d. 1460)
May 10 – Thomas Tuddenham, Landowner (d. 1462)
July 23 – Francesco I Sforza, Italian condottiero (d. 1466)[3]
September 14 – Maria of Castile, Queen of Aragon, Queen consort of Aragon and Naples (d. 1458)
October 27 – Catherine of Valois, queen consort of England from 1420 until 1422 (d. 1437)[4]
October 28 – Thomas St Clere, English landowner (d. 1435)
November 26 – Henry Beaufort, 2nd Earl of Somerset (d. 1418)
December 21 – Tommaso Masaccio, Italian painter (d. 1428)
date unknown
Charles I, Duke of Bourbon (d. 1456)
Jacqueline, Countess of Hainaut (d. 1436)

I have omitted one non-European, as Japanese Emperors are hardly what you want to know about.

1402 etc ... you take as many years as possible. The more, the better.

Then you line up the ages in order:

17 28 34 36 36 39 42 53 56 57 59 59 60 61 61 62 64/65 65 67 82 87

One lifespan has two values, so this gives two lines (always bother only about highest and lowest, and with several having more than one value, bother about a line with highest only and one with lowest only).

17 28 34 36 36 39 42 53 56 57 59 59 60 61 61 62 64 65 67 82 87
17 28 34 36 36 39 42 53 56 57 59 59 60 61 61 62 65 65 67 82 87

And add place values:

17 28 34 36 36 39 42 53 56 57 59 59 60 61 61 62 64 65 67 82 87
17 28 34 36 36 39 42 53 56 57 59 59 60 61 61 62 65 65 67 82 87
01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

Minimum 17, maximum 87.
Median 59
Lower quartile 39, higher quartile 62.

So, mostly about 39 to 62, centering around 59. The one lifespan with two values is between HQ and Maximum, so doesn't affect the result.

You can of course take a medium instead. Add 17+28+ ... + 87 and then divide the sum by 21.

Now, some more : the material is nearly uniformly people who did not die in childhood, so the answer is only valid if you add the proviso excluding the infant and juvenile mortality, and the material is mostly men, so women are not so represented.

The latter can be remedied by making separate calculations for men and women.

This is the method, I have done some work on my part according to it, now you do your work.

More Babel and Genesis on Quora


On Babel, Archaeology and Historic Linguistics · More Babel and Genesis on Quora

Q I
How did Medieval Catholicism explain the differences between the cultures of their day?
https://www.quora.com/How-did-Medieval-Catholicism-explain-the-differences-between-the-cultures-of-their-day/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Answer requested by
John K Williamsson

Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 1m ago
Partly diversity between Romans, Greeks, Arabic, Germanic, Celtic, Slavic and Hungarian tribes, and this in turn going back to table of nations and language split after Babel.

Note, each then existing nation was not seen as one of the immediate results of the Babel split, since which nations had both split and merged.

Q II
Is Mesopotamia considered a city, a country, a region, or a civilization?
https://www.quora.com/Is-Mesopotamia-considered-a-city-a-country-a-region-or-a-civilization/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Answer requested by
Gary Goh

Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 6m ago
Mesopotamia is a region between the rivers Euphrates and Tigris.

It is in Turkey, Iraq, Syria, with North Mesopotamia straddling the three and South Mesopotamia being mid Iraq.

One also refers to Mesopotamian civilisation as one starting with Sumerians and ending its period of independence with Assyrians and Neo-Babylonians. It is named "Mesopotamian civilisation" for having Mesopotamia as its geographic theatre.

However, the region existed before that civilisation and it still exists after it.

Q III
What written account of a people’s ancient history have archaeologists supposedly proven to be false besides Israel’s?
https://www.quora.com/What-written-account-of-a-people-s-ancient-history-have-archaeologists-supposedly-proven-to-be-false-besides-Israel-s/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Answer requested by
Robert Sockett

Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 15m ago
Thank you for supposedly, since they have not proven Israel's ancient history to be false.

I actually don't know of any, unless Mahabharata (31:st C. BC according to Kali Yuga) is supposed to come after Ramayana, with about 1000 years between, but even then, it is more on Biblical than on archaeology as such grounds that I reject this.

Q IV
Were Adam and Eve Neanderthals or humans?
https://www.quora.com/Were-Adam-and-Eve-Neanderthals-or-humans/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 2h ago
First, Neanderthals are humans.

Then, in pre-Flood times, Cro-Magnon, Neanderthals and Denisovans (who are probably same as Antecessor and Heidelbergian) came from Adam and Eve, some possibly by nephelim or transgenics.

Then some Neanderthal and Denisovan, but mainly Cro-Magnon heritage went on the Ark.

Since Noah was only tenth from Adam, Adam might have been closer to Cro-Magnon than to Neanderthal and Denisovan.

Q V
Were Adam and Eve adults when God created them?
https://www.quora.com/Were-Adam-and-Eve-adults-when-God-created-them/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 3h ago
Yes, they were physically adults and also had adult mental capacities.

Only, they did not have a modern adult experience, and the one we have is so dependent on their sin and its consequences that they couldn’t have had it.

Q VI
If God just created Adam and Eve, where did Neanderthals come from?
https://www.quora.com/If-God-just-created-Adam-and-Eve-where-did-Neanderthals-come-from/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 3h ago
From Adam and Eve.

Q VII
Does the Old Testament/Tanakh explain why many people (Adam, Noah, etc.) lived so long and why we no longer do?
https://www.quora.com/Does-the-Old-Testament-Tanakh-explain-why-many-people-Adam-Noah-etc-lived-so-long-and-why-we-no-longer-do/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Answer requested by
Michael Hogan

Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 3h ago
Genesis 6:3

And God said: My spirit shall not remain in man for ever, because he is flesh, and his days shall be a hundred and twenty years.

Challoner comment : [3] "His days shall be": The meaning is, that man's days, which before the flood were usually 900 years, should now be reduced to 120 years. Or rather, that God would allow men this term of 120 years, for their repentance and conversion, before he would send the deluge.

Douay-Rheims Bible (Genesis 6)

Now, if the former meaning is taken, the post-Flood generations in Genesis 11 show a gradual descent to the age 120 years (or younger) at death.

Douay-Rheims Bible (Genesis 11)

These are the generations of Sem: Sem was a hundred years old when he begot Arphaxad, two years after the flood. And Sem lived after he begot Arphaxad, five hundred years, and begot sons and daughters. … And Nachor lived nine and twenty years, and begot Thare. And Nachor lived after he begot Thare, a hundred and nineteen years: and begot sons and daughters. (verses 10,11 and 24,25)

600 years for Sem down to 148 years for Nachor, his son however a rise to 205 years …

Q VIII
Why are cavemen, dinosaurs, neanderthals, etc. not mentioned in the Bible?
https://www.quora.com/Why-are-cavemen-dinosaurs-neanderthals-etc-not-mentioned-in-the-Bible/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered 19h ago
Who says they aren’t?

First of all, if Noah’s family lived as cavemen after the Flood and Noah became a husbandman only late near his death, why would the Bible mention the cave dwelling if it was not relevant?

Second, the Bible mentions dragons, more than once, and also unicorns, which can be ceratopsians.

Third, Neanderthals would have been part of the ancestry of one daughter in law of Noah, but even so the Bible need not mention her ancestry, since it didn’t even mention her name (or the other daughters in law’s names).

Q IX
Are the Sumerians mentioned in the Bible?
https://www.quora.com/Are-the-Sumerians-mentioned-in-the-Bible


2 Answers

A 1

Answer requested by
Ayana Ates

Jay Altieri
Commercial General Contractor and Bible Student
Answered Mon
The Sumerians predate most of the biblical history. Their glory days would have been after Tower of Babel (Gen 11) and before birth of Abram (Gen12). Their history is not relevant to the history of salvation and God's dealing with humanity, so it is skipped.

There is a possible anachronistic mention of a famous Sumerian city, that Abram was born in: Ur of the Chaldees.

In Abram's time (about 2000bc), the Sumerians were winding down. The Akkadians took over and then the Gutians, then Ur had a 3rd dynasty. The exact timing of how all of that coincides with Abram's life is disputed and not really known. But Ur is almost certainly one of the great Sumerian city states. Calling the city "of the Chaldees" is an anachronism. Chaldean people didn't show up till 100's of years after Abram, in the neo-Babylonian period. This redaction edit was probably added by Ezra or whoever did the final tweaking and polishing of Genesis during the Persian period.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
20h ago
“Their glory days would have been after Tower of Babel (Gen 11) and before birth of Abram (Gen12).”

Sorry, but while Abraham was born in 2015 BC, arguably that would carbon date as 4000 BC or older, so Ur would have been around from his birth or youth or so.

The carbon dated 2000 are way later, after Joseph in Egypt, c. 1700 BC, since Joseph is Imhotep, whose Pharao Djoser’s coffin is carbon dated to 2600 BC.

“Calling the city "of the Chaldees" is an anachronism.”

Unless it’s another place than Ur of Woolley …

“Their history is not relevant to the history of salvation and God's dealing with humanity, so it is skipped.”

The time of their history can’t be. Everything from Adam and Eve to us and to Doomsday is salvation history. From Our Lord to us, we have the Church mentioned.

A 2

David Musgrove
studied The Bible & Theology (1985)
Answered Sun
Yes but Sumer is Shinar in the bible.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Tue
I think you are wrong.

Shinar was all of Mesopotamia, not just Sumer. Both Sumer and Sinjar may have been named for Shinar, without exercising effective control over it (confer how Murrican and Americano are used these days, neither having full control over all Americas).

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Just now
Wait, I might be overdoing it. In Genesis 11, Shinar is Mesopotamia, but in Genesis 14, Amraphel may have been king of only Sumer.

Q
Is there an attempt to make ancient civilisations consistent with the biblical narrative, namely dividing historic periods according to antediluvian, pre-Babel, and post-Babel, instead of the present classification based on materials?
https://www.quora.com/Is-there-an-attempt-to-make-ancient-civilisations-consistent-with-the-biblical-narrative-namely-dividing-historic-periods-according-to-antediluvian-pre-Babel-and-post-Babel-instead-of-the-present-classification/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered Tue
Well, I am doing one and I am also basing it on materials.

Materials dated “3500 BC” by carbon are from Abraham’s lifetime. Genesis 14 describes the occasion on which Amorrhites left En-Geddi (=Asason-Tamar), and reed mats a bit away from the place with chalcolithic temple treasures from it have been carbon dated to 3500 BC. Real date would be around 1940 - 35 BC, when Abraham was c. 75 - 80.

Material carbon dated 9600 - 8600 BC (Göbekli Tepe) would be Babel.

Material carbon dated 38 000 - 9600 BC would be post-Flood and pre-Babel.

Or, a material carbon dated 38 000 BC could be just at the end of the pre-Flood era, in the year of the Flood.

On Quranic Sura 4 Aya 157 (quora) - a Christian Answer


Q
Do Christians know about the crucification facts of Jesus in the Quran Chapter 4, verse 157?
https://www.quora.com/Do-Christians-know-about-the-crucification-facts-of-Jesus-in-the-Quran-Chapter-4-verse-157/answer/Hans-Georg-Lundahl-1


Hans-Georg Lundahl
none/ apprx Masters Latin & Greek, Lund University
Answered just now
I know the Quranic lie Our Lord was not crucified and Judas was crucified in his place, given his appearance. Is it in Sura 4, Aya 157? Didn’t know that.

The Gospels were written within decades from the actual events, two of them by people who were disciples when He walked among us, two by people who had access to such (St. Mark had access to St. Peter and St. Luke interviewed several, including the Blessed Virgin).

The Quran was spoken (later written down after memorisation) by a man who claimed revelations from Allah and who lived several centuries after the life of Our Lord, in a place where Christianity was being marginalised (there were Christians in Arabian peninsula, but mostly not in Meccah or Yathrib).

The choice is very easy for me.

Tuesday, November 12, 2019

Marriage, Single Religion or Obedience to Parents


Can a Catholic marry a Protestant?
7.XI.2019 | LizziesAnswers
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Q1n04mF4Bg4


Hans-Georg Lundahl
A bit of a follow up on your point.

The Catechism of Trent, perhaps even the council of Trent in the canons, says that it is usually a mortal sin to marry against the will of one's parents.

Now, suppose you are Catholic and your dad is a Protestant and your dad hopes you will become a Protestant again, and so opposes your marrying a Catholic, since that obviously would interfere with returning to Protestantism, would you still be obliged to refrain from marrying a girl if your father opposes it?

I would think that would be a very good reason to make an exception on that "usually" rule ...?

Heroica Knight
I'm no expert, but I strongly think that a ruling like that is less binding these days. Sure, honoring parents' opinions and wishes is good, but they're is God's will as well. In your scenario, the father is trying to refuse his child God's call. While he's you're going against a parent's will, I don't think it would be mortally sinful.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@Heroica Knight Thank you, I don't think so either.