Monday, December 25, 2023

More for a Divine Institution


Why Tradition Must Submit to Scripture
The Based Lutheran | 8 Nov. 2023
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jt62goLffIg


0:45 Thank you for this, both Churches have "Catholic" in official descriptions of the Church and "Orthodox" in official descriptions of the Faith, and use the adjectives also interchanged of Faith and Church.

A Russian Orthodox would describe his own Church as "kafolik" (Russian pronunciation of katholikos) and consider a Roman Catholic as "katolik" (imitating Latin and German and Polish pronunciations of the word).

1:03 I agree that the primacy of St. Peter is not sufficient to determine the effective primacy of Old Rome in the present day, since Palamas taught that each local bishop is the successor of St. Peter.

Plus the Orthodox would also say "we obeyed the Popes as long as they were Orthodox" (Pope St. Leo III is honoured as a saint and seen as a subtle opponent of Charlemagne, whom some of them credit to being the founder of Roman Catholicism).

1:14 Saying the Bible derives its authority from the Church is somewhat of a shortcut.

The Bible derives its authority from God as author, and from the Church as recognising the divine authorship of each Bible book.

Btw, for the 73 books of a Roman Catholic Bible, all are canonic in the Eastern Orthodox Church as well. Not vice versa.

What we Catholics call I and II Esdras = Ezra and Nehemia. But they would call these II and III Esdras, and their I Esdras is not canonic in the RCC.
The EO also have III and IV Maccabees.

So, to use the Bible between RC and EO, one way is actually to see two localities that St. Paul praises for the faith.

To this, it should be noted, the RCC is not decided on whether Baruch is a part of Jeremiah or a separate book. So, we have an OT of 45 or 46 book, an overall Bible of 72 or 73 books.

Thessalonica and Berea are both very highly praised, and they are 73 km or 45 miles apart.

1:53 Apostolic Succession narrows down the choices to between:

  • Roman Catholic
  • Eastern Orthodox
  • Copt
  • Armenian
  • Assyrian


The last of these is also known as Nestorian, and the two before that are often lumped together as Monophysites, while they prefer Miaphysites as a more polite term. I chose the national labels among other things to avoid the question on which of these labels is more correct.

Now, Lutheran, Anglican, Methodist, Moravian, and even worse Presbyterian and Congregationalist are not on the list. These are choices you should already narrow out from. Including if you are yourself a Lutheran.

2:23 "other source than your own magisterial tradition"

Church Fathers.

St. Augustine died before the Council of Ephesus was held. I e, before the list of five Churches previously alluded to split.

Not just the Bible, but everything in the Church Fathers prior to 430 can help decide chosing between the five Churches.

Not just the Bible and those Church Fathers, but everything in even more Church Fathers prior to 1054 can help decide chosing between the remaining two Churches, if you rule out Copt, Armenian and Assyrian.

2:30 "external to [your] tradition"

Er, external to tradition after the Church splits.

You cannot invalidate tradition prior to 1054 as tainted by the schism of 1054.

And my pro tip, if I may say so, is to go to the Bible. Matthew 26:17 shows that the Last Supper was indeed a Seder according to the law of Moses, with azymes.

The pretended martyrdom of "Saint Peter the Aleut" is a good confirmation that the schism was from Michael Caerularius considering the azyme hosts as invalid matter, pretending John 19:14 proved that Good Friday was the day when Jews were getting rid of leavened breads, so Jesus could not have eaten unleavened ones the day before. "Peter the Aleut" is said to have been martyred by Spanish Jesuits for refusing to communicate in azymes. Highly unlikely, but shows that azymes are more important or at least as important to understanding 1054 as filioque.

Which by the way I can trace to I Council of Toledo, in 400 AD, when it condemned Priscillianism. Yes, there is a document in Latin and Spanish online, from a site external to me, and I have myself done an English translation, mainly from the Latin with some help of the Spanish.

Concilio de Toledo I
año 397-400
https://www.filosofia.org/cod/c0397t01.htm


Filioque far older than III Council of Toledo
https://trentophilaret.blogspot.com/p/filioque-far-older-than-iii-council-of.html


2:43 The Council of Jerusalem claimed to be Theopneust.

Acts 15:28.

The Apostles were Theopneust, God in the flesh literally breathed on them.

John 20:22.

So, yes, OT Scripture is God-breathed, as you mention. Apostles and therefore Apostolic succession is God-breathed. Councils of the Church are God-breathed.

2:55 Let's first prove from the Bible there is a one true Church.

Matthew 16 has Jesus saying I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.

This is not the debated point whether Jesus, Peter or his Faith are the rock, good Catholicism says "all three of above" (St. Augustine, for instance), this is about what Christ builds on the rock. The Church.

Given that the primary meaning in pre-Christian Greek of ekklesia is "legislative or deliberative assembly of a city state" we can take that Church has city as synonym. Rock obviously also has mountain as synonym, a mountain is a very big rock. A rock big enough for a city or Church to stand on it would be a mountain.

Matthew 5 has Jesus saying A city seated on a mountain cannot be hid.

So, not only will the Church Jesus founded not vanish, it will not even vanish from sight.

Again, could it not have branched out into several ones?

And if he will not hear the church, let him be to thee as the heathen and publican. Matthew 18, again it is Our Lord speaking. Next verse Jesus tells the Apostles what authority He gives them collectively, as also individually to St. Peter: Amen I say to you, whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, shall be bound also in heaven; and whatsoever you shall loose upon earth, shall be loosed also in heaven.

For a man to be able to hear the Church and know he is not a heathen and publican, for a man to know in what he is bound even before heaven, as before the Church on earth, he has to know where the Church is. If five candidates all claim to be the Church, and disagree, he needs to know which of them is the true one.

So, going from all Protestantism to this list:

  • Roman Catholic
  • Eastern Orthodox
  • Copt
  • Armenian
  • Assyrian


= is a step in the right direction, and where all five agree (there are seven sacraments, Mary is body and soul in heaven, She never ever sinned ...) take that as a first correction of your errors.

But you would need to take out four of the five, before you could actually fully live a Christian life.

Again, this is not the proverbial needle in the haystack, it's a not too difficult task. Copts, Armenians, Assyrians are named each after a single nation, and each apostolic succession is making one nation disciples (or two for Copts : Egyptians and Ethiopians). Matthew 28 has Jesus saying teach ye all nations; and Catholics and Orthodox have better claims than the last three, but Catholics an even better one than Orthodox. Cuzco and Congo are more different than Greece and Ukraine (and there are actually RC in Greece and Ukraine too, they are called Uniates).

Plus, what I said about azymes being definitely a very proper matter for the Blessed Sacrament.

3:06 While mere institutional continuity is insufficient for the reason that you mention, constitutional continuity is needed because of the Biblical reason I gave.

Btw, if you had real problems with constitutional Church continuity after 1054, how come you don't have one with it up to Pope St. Damasus giving the canon of the NT in full and exclusively those books?

The problem you find with constitutional church is one that has a mirror. Is the real NT canon the Muratorian one which includes Pastor Hermas? Or the one of Laodicea, 361, which does not include the Apocalypse? The difference between the canons is not unimportant. If Pastor Hermas is true, what does that say about those who sin after baptism? If Apocalypse is not true Scripture, how do we tell who the Antichrist is? No one says a gematria of 666 is sufficient, but with the Apocalypse, it is at least necessary.

However, either way you will know the Our Father, since the Four Gospels are canon.

So, like there are differences between how long Mary was sinless (correct and Catholic answer : since as long as She was in existence at all, and even before, since that's how God planned Her, incorrect typical EO answer, shared historically by some RC, like Sts Augustine and Thomas Aquinas, "since just a moment later" ...), which ever is the true one, there is a takeaway. Mary was sinless on earth and is in heaven body and soul. The price for rejecting this is not having the Bible and not the true Church, its having not even the Bible, if you are consistent.

3:22 The Catholic teaching does not say Scripture has no authority of its own.
The Catholic teaching does say, it has its divine authority before God because of His act of inspiration, but before our conscience, because of the recognition of the Church.

Now, the problem is, and it shows in your choice of pictures, you presume that if all Scripture is authoritative, if a Catholic admits to be truly bound by it, and if he is honest, he'll become for instance Lutheran, or at least admit only Scripture is the Apostolic deposit we now have access to. But the Lutheran doctrine on more than one item (like simul justus et peccator) is against Scripture, and your argument is also against Scripture.

The true consistency is either to admit to how the solution of where the one true Church is, is not insoluble, or to quit Christianity altogether.

You have not shown "sola scriptura" is consistent.

You have not shown that any tradition shared by:

  • Roman Catholic
  • Eastern Orthodox
  • Copt
  • Armenian
  • Assyrian


could ever be discarded for contradicting Scripture, nor that every Church on the list has traditions universal and seen as binding in that Church, which needs to be discarded, since contradicting Scripture. There is at least one (and very probably only one) on this list which has no internally universal or otherwise binding tradition that needs such discarding.

4:10 I paused the video to get the transscript, I love this quote too:

third session of the first Vatican Council these books the church holds to be sacred and canonical not because she subsequently approved them by her Authority after they had been composed by aned human skill nor simply because they contain Revelation without error but because being written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit they have God as their author and were as such committed to the church committed to the church


My one quibble would be your term "first" Vatican council. Were there more than one? (Btw, I have some problem with your pictorial choice of illustration of the papacy, as I don't hold Bergoglio to be Pope, even if Fiducia Supplicans, like Humani Generis, permits a perfectly orthodox and orthoprax interpretational choice : Adam being created directly by God, and two persons of sinful couples being blessed if showing a willingness to repent).

4:22 The Church was the vessel

Can you show it has been broken?

Can you show Seraphim of Sarov has an equal claim with St. Ignatius of Loyola or St. Simon Stock to represent the one true Church, or that Bergoglio has an equal claim with Michael II?

Sunday, December 24, 2023

La Garma Cave


16,800 Year Old Palaeolithic Hut Discovered | La Garma Cave
History with Kayleigh | 17.XII.2023
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OjuSuTi9sKo


14,800 BC would be between these two points:

2778 B. Chr.
0.224559* pmC/100, so dated as 15 128 B. Chr.
2756 B. Chr.
0.250709 pmC/100, so dated as 14 206 B. Chr.


0:57 "300 000 years ago" is obviously not a carbon date, but a ... U-Pb? Th-Pb? K-Ar? or sth date.

When is the oldest carbon date from?

My previous comment obviously depends on 16,800 BP being a carbon date and not for instance TL or sth ...

History with Kayleigh
@HistorywithKayleigh
The evidence of habitation in the cave spans from 300,000 to 16,800 years ago, I'm not an academic myself that researched this site. So I can only give you the information that's made public. In February we will learn more after the official announcement

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@hglundahl
OK, thanks, @HistorywithKayleigh!


To the younger side:

El Truchiro Cave lies at 39 m (128 ft) above sea level and contains Mesolithic and Chacolithic layers.[1] A late Mesolithic burial dating to around 5560–5310 BC was discovered,[9] with an individual buried in an oak bark coffin.[1]


5560 BC would be between these:

2243 B. Chr.
0.657496 pmC/100, so dated as 5693 B. Chr.
2220 B. Chr.
0.680023 pmC/100, so dated as 5420 B. Chr.


So, a bit more than 500 years from the date you are talking of, the La Garma entrance proper.

4:31 300 000 years be blown. In Spain, you obviously had both Neanderthals and Denisovans in the pre-Flood era.

By Denisovans, I refer to Antecessor, which Svante Pääbo tested to genetically very close to the Denisovan genome from Denisova cave, but obviously Atapuerca is not carbon dated and the other methods give very much older aberrant dates, which seems to me to be the only reason why Antecessor, Heidelbergian and Denisovan are still distinguished from each other.

So, if we don't know "which human species" this means that the 300 000 year date is not a carbon date from actual human bones ...?

Dan Edwards
@TheOriginalDanEdwards
"in the pre-Flood era." - what "flood"??

Hans-Georg Lundahl
That of Noah, @TheOriginalDanEdwards.


6:51 Speaking of huts and tents ... in the case that people actually were living in caves, or thought to have been so, is it standard like La Garma Lower Gallery and Terra Amata to have some kind of hut (La Garma) or tent (Terra Amata) inside the cave?

Seems like a smart and comfy thing to do, otherwise it could probably get too cold and damp ...

Zalig Kerstmis alvast!
(hoping "alvast" is the correct for "in advance" as I used google translate).

* This means, if you multiply by 100 on both sides, you have translated it to 22.4559 pmC etc for other values, I was better off with decimal fractions than percentage fractions when calculating manually.

Attacks on the Christmas Feast from a Protestant, Answered


Assorted retorts from yahoo boards and elsewhere: Answering Tovia Singer on December 25 · Sharing on December 25, Kurt Simmons · Attacks on the Christmas Feast from a Protestant, Answered · Φιλολoγικά/Philologica: Two Challenges Against Christmas, Answered

The True Date of Christ's Birth
History of Redemption | 25 Dec. 2016
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=C3acPaxnFME


First my answer to this video:

1:16 Actually, the day God became Man was 9 months earlier.

Jesus Christus, aeternus Deus aeternique Patris Filius, mundum volens adventu suo piissimo consecrare, de Spiritu Sancto conceptus, novemque post conceptionem decursis mensibus in Bethlehem Judae nascitur ex Maria Virgine factus Homo. Nativitas Domini nostri Jesu Christi secundum carnem.

Note, "factus Homo" means "having become man" ... and the martyrology mentions "novemque post conceptionem decursis mensibus"

4:07 Oh, wait, you are assuming that the Purification was after Herod's death?

That's an assumption, not actually in the Bible text.

5:28 What if the Purification passed by under Herod's radar, before he heard of the Magi and their request?

6:07 Here is Luke 2.

20 And the shepherds returned, glorifying and praising God, for all the things they had heard and seen, as it was told unto them. 21 And after eight days were accomplished, that the child should be circumcised, his name was called JESUS, which was called by the angel, before he was conceived in the womb. 22 And after the days of her purification, according to the law of Moses, were accomplished, they carried him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord:

A straightforward reading of this at least suggests that this happened while they were still staying in Bethlehem.

Herod is not mentioned in Luke.

Now, is there anything in the account from Matthew to suggest the contrary?

1 When Jesus therefore was born in Bethlehem of Juda, in the days of king Herod, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem. 2 Saying, Where is he that is born king of the Jews? For we have seen his star in the east, and are come to adore him. 3 And king Herod hearing this, was troubled, and all Jerusalem with him.

Now, is there anything here that says this happened immediately after the birth? No. The English translation "when ... was born" could suggest it, but Greek genitive absolute could have as a more wooden translation "Jesus having been born" ... γεννηθέντος is an aorist passive participle, not a present passive participle. It denotes previous action, not simultaneous action.

In verse 20, we do not find Herod having sought the life of the teknon, but of the paidion, which means little or young child. Not necessarily a newborn, but a toddler too would qualify.

20 Saying: Arise, and take the child and his mother, and go into the land of Israel. For they are dead that sought the life of the child.
λέγων· ἐγερθεὶς παράλαβε τὸ παιδίον καὶ τὴν μητέρα αὐτοῦ καὶ πορεύου εἰς γῆν Ἰσραήλ· τεθνήκασιν γὰρ οἱ ζητοῦντες τὴν ψυχὴν τοῦ παιδίου.

And that Our Lord had been born an indefinite time before which could take up to two years is perfectly compatible with the terms of Herod's order.

16 Then Herod perceiving that he was deluded by the wise men, was exceeding angry; and sending killed all the men children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the borders thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently inquired of the wise men.

8:02 No, it does not say that this happened on the very night when Jesus was born. What the English translation "when Jesus was born" sounds like to you is not what the Greek text actually says.

The Catholic translation says "by night" ... meaning, St. Joseph left when there was less risk of being detected. "αὐτοῦ νυκτὸς" is not "that night" but "τὸ παιδίον καὶ τὴν μητέρα αὐτοῦ" is followed by "νυκτὸς" meaning "by night" ...

8:08 Infant child? Does not say so in Matthew 2. Mother not Healed? Also does not say so in Matthew 2.

Welcome to the land of eisegesis!

12:30 "they were not bothered by any soldiers"

An excellent reason why this happened before Herod's death, not some week or two after it.

13:17 You are giving very excellent proof that Joseph did not go to Jerusalem from Nazareth that year!

16:58 The one thing you could catch on to to defend Jesus could not have been born earlier is, He was "around thirty" (Luke 3:23) in the "15th year of Tiberius" (Luke 3:1).

Which might be somewhat awkward if He was born for instance in 5 BC or 6 BC. However, even that argument would hinge on Josephus getting the time when Herod died absolutely correct, not just in relation to when his reign began, but when that was in relation to the BC/AD divide or to years within AD.

Next, Taylor Marshall's answer on the positive arguments FOR Jesus being born December 25th:

Yes, Jesus was born on Dec 25! Dr Marshall proves Dec 25 birth of Christ
Dr Taylor Marshall | 20 Dec. 2019
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6ZKidBymj3A


Dito, a Dominican on when St. Hippolytus of Rome identified December 25. Before "Sol Invictus" is mentioned:

Why is Christmas on December 25th?
DSPT - Dominican School of Philosophy and Theology | 25 Dec. 2019
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DGQJ5ObJ1yE

Saturday, December 23, 2023

My Apologies Leaves Out Parts of the Argument He Pretends to Refute


My Apologies Leaves Out Parts of the Argument He Pretends to Refute · Dialogue under My Apologies' Video : was already 382 infallible? · "My Apologies" Claims to Defend Infallible Scripture As Somehow Accessible Without Infallible Church · No Deception, Your Apologies, Just a Thing You Hadn't Learned to Read : an Implication

First the original video by Reformed to Rome:

Acts 15 Disproves Sola Scriptura
Reformed To Rome | 26 June 2023
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nO5rwdJrPVA


Here is the response by My Apologies:

Sola Scriptura Still Stands Strong | Response to Reformed to Rome
My Apologies | 11 Dec. 2023
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QHYa1pkjh-U


3:34 No, you can't say the council was materially inerrant and not formally infallible.

Why?

Because the material inerrancy of a statement does not provide the authority to bind the Church, only infallible formal authority provides that.

My Apologies
@my.apologies
That’s just a baseless assertion… why can’t legitimate church authority bind the church regardless of its infallibility?

Hans-Georg Lundahl
@hglundahl
Can it legitimately affirm to be speaking for the Holy Ghost without infallibly speaking for the Holy Ghost?

My Apologies
The councils all act with the explicit understanding that they are operating with the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Yet Augustine says they are correctable & I guarantee you yourself do not believe EVERYTHING that is contained within them. So, yes you absolutely can.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
1) What exactly does St. Augustine mean by them being correctable?
2) How is your argument not an appeal from the argument that your opponent is concretely making from Sola Scriptura to Church Tradition, which you hold to be non-infallible?
3) Give me an example of a doctrine taught by a council that I do not believe?

My Apologies
1. He means corrected - to put right an error or fault. Straightforward and clear from the context.
2. This point is a run-on sentence that I can’t make heads or tails what you’re trying to ask…
3. I don’t know what you believe personally tbh. You could believe that Mother God is the New Jerusalem for all I know. Would you claim to believe everything in the ecumenical councils? That would be pretty surprising!

Hans-Georg Lundahl
1. "He means corrected - to put right an error or fault."

Do you have any argument for that except the usual lexical meaning in modern English?

Straightforward and clear from the context.

Not straightforward, since that would not explain why local councils cede to them.

Not clear from the context, since he provides no example of any previous council having been in error and that error was then corrected.

A very clear example of Nicaea omitting and Constantinople including explicitations on the Holy Ghost and on the Church would be an argument for my view that by "correcting" he means not correcting the faults of error, but the faults of omission.

2. St. Augustine is not Scripture, but part of Tradition, also not the sole part of it.

3. As a Catholic, I claim to believe every doctrine of the councils.

My Apologies
Do I have any other proof other than the fact that it’s the way the word is translated by everyone? Nope, not off the top of my head. But if you’re gonna take up the argument that it’s a bad translation, that’s gonna have to be with the translators. And you’ll need a good reason to retranslate the word.

Learning from tradition is not against Sola Scriptura.

That is interesting to hear! I understood that Catholics argue often over which parts of the councils are infallible and which parts aren’t. Perhaps I am mistaken on this.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
When you use the word "correct yourself" do you always mean admit you had stated sth erroneous?

I think you sometimes mean stating sth which you think you ought to have stated, but didn't.

For instance, I ought to have stated that I am making a blog post of our exchanges, and making this even more public than it already is.

You probably refer to Vatican II-accepters arguing which part of Vatican II is infallible. As far as I am concerned, none, since it contains errors. It's not a council of the Church.

"Learning from tradition is not against Sola Scriptura."

Not the least, but it is interesting that on this occasion, you cannot argue from Scripture alone without trying to back it up from Tradition. In a way that doesn't work.


4:14 I would say it infers the infallibility of the authority.

Even stating Luke in his text as hagiographer (and therefore formally infallible, as inspired by God) is only directly stating the inerrancy of the content, part of that inerrant content is that the council has infallible authority with which to bind the Church.

My Apologies
Why is that part of the infallible authority? You’re just making assertions…

Hans-Georg Lundahl
It comes off as somewhat suspect that you are regurgitating this one point without studying the detail of the content.

I am 5:41 into a video of 8:51, and you are talking of the abstract case that the council could have stated sth which was inerrant (like Jesus is Lord and God) and taken simply distance from all who did not hold it, but that is not what happened.

For it hath seemed good to the Holy Ghost and to us,

I e, the council stated it was speaking on behalf of the Holy Ghost.

to lay no further burden upon you than

I e, the council stated it had an authority to lay burdens on the faithful.

My Apologies
It’s not an abstract… I’m quoting St. Augustine

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Your quote from him does not involve the words ....

My Apologies
I lost you. Tough to have a reasonable conversation across a half dozen comments lol

Hans-Georg Lundahl
OK, your quote from St. Augustine does not explicitate that he believed a council that speaks for the Holy Ghost could be wrong, unless it were invalid.


4:57 Acts 17 says that the content of the quoted parts is inerrant materially.

However, in Acts 15, part of the materially inerrant content quoted is in fact a claim to formal infallible authority.

My Apologies
Why are they different? Other than it affirms your own belief for them to be different.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
The in-Bible quotes from the pagan poet include no part in which the poet says "I am infallible" or "I am inspired by the Holy Ghost" ...

My Apologies
Which part of Acts 15 says “I am infallible…”?

Hans-Georg Lundahl
The ones you consistently left out:

it hath seemed good to the Holy Ghost and to us
(claim to speak for the Holy Ghost)
to lay no further burden upon you
(claim to be able to lay burdens on the Church)

My Apologies
That’s not “I am infallible” nor do they necessitate infallibility

Hans-Georg Lundahl
If they neither are nor necessitate it, I don't know what "infallible" is otherwise supposed to mean.

The men are claiming to be Theopneust.

My Apologies
Whoaaaaaa that’s wild man… they literally do not claim that. The claim to have reasonable certainly of how the Holy Spirit is guiding them.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
It has pleased the Holy Ghost and us.

That's literally a claim to speak for the Holy Ghost.


5:34 No, that would in fact be self-contradictory, since part of what it stated inerrantly was precisely its own infallible authority to bind the Church.

My Apologies
Thats 0% true. Authority does not require infallibility.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Authority in the abstract doesn't. Authority to actually bind the Church requires the negative infallibility of not leading astray.

My Apologies
That would be true if they were binding the faithful to anything outside of scripture. But they are not.. they are reaffirming what was already taught and applying the gospel.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
They are definitely binding the faithful to sth outside the plain text of already accepted Scripture, i e the Old Testament.

As for the Gospel, it was accessible as Tradition (I hand on to you what I have also received, 1 Cor 15), but not yet at that moment as Scripture.

My Apologies
No, it’s all things already laid on the people of god by scripture.

And as for tradition, yes you’re right that the gospel at this time is in the process of enscripturation but only exists at this point in the Regula Fidei - this is not an issue for Tradition 1 Sola Scriptura which is the classical reformation view.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
"it’s all things already laid on the people of god by scripture."

What (previous) Scripture?

"this is not an issue for Tradition 1 Sola Scriptura"

How isn't it?

My Apologies
Because we affirm the Regula Fidei as authoritative and informative.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
We hold the Regula Fidei to be authoritative and informative, and accessible to each generation of faithful.

This means there is some significance to Tradition being a very clearly evidenced means of access in 1 Cor 15, and a Church Council in Acts 15 also being a very clearly evidenced means of access.

That previously accessible Scripture was not immediately clear on the issues is obvious from the fact that there were people who believed the OT required and Jesus had not lifted the requirement of circumcision.


6:33 So, when St. Augustine uses the word "corrected" he means "completed" or "corrected for completion", not corrected from error into truth.

So, a probably very go to quote mining from St. Augustine is not in fact a denial that general councils, and for that matter even papally approved local councils, are infallible.

At least the councils of Orange, Toledo, and a few more are treated as infallible, as long as no infallible statement contradicts them, which to my best knowledge has not yet happened.

My Apologies
Can you give additional context that shows your re-interpretation of the word “corrected” because that’s not the simple reading of the text.

If you can’t provide context that proves your view, then it is YOU who is attempting to deceive and you should re-evaluate your position.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Additional context:
1) he nowhere gives an example of an earlier council being wrong and the correction implying rectification of an earlier wrong
2) the natural reading of sth new being brought forth is, there is a new error to be condemned, in addition to the previously condemned ones

My Apologies
1. This is an argument from silence 🤫
2. This sentence doesn’t make sense

Hans-Georg Lundahl
1. A very strong one. A silence where a statement would be needed to support your point.
2. I am not at fault for your lack of comprehension.

My Apologies
I am reliably informed by the Catholic apologists that arguments from silence are not strong.

I agree insofar as there is no additional evidence to the contrary.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
Arguments from silence are not strong if there is no particular reason why sth should be mentioned if true or believed to be so in the given context remaining to us.

They are strong, if the opposite argument is exactly one quote, and that one quote in the sense supposed by Gavin Ortlund and yourself is not supported by the historic events leading up to it.

My Apologies
It is supported by the historical claims leading up to it. The early fathers did not teach that the councils were infallible.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
That's an argument from silence, apart from this quotemine.

Hippolytus of Rome had no Ecumenical Councils to look back to, and I doubt he would have agreed that the Council of Jerusalem wasn't infallible.

But it is not supported by historical facts, what the Ecumenic councils claimed about each other. Constantinople didn't claim Nicea was wrong, but had left things unstated.

Hans-Georg Lundahl
I could actually give an example with your sense of correcting, but only from after St. Augustine died.

Chalcedon repudiated Ephesus II.

So, a wholesale repudiation is possible, a completion of sth left out is possible (Nicea to Constantinople), and what's not examplified is any council admitting a previous council was legitimate but finding fault with any positive detail.


6:55 "if it's determined that they were wrong"

Sorry, but St. Augustine doesn't explicitly support your understanding of how he used the word "corrected" ...

My Apologies
^see my reply on your other attempt at making this point.

Wednesday, December 20, 2023