He's Treating the Concept of Greek, Like Some Treat That of Palestinians

Upfront, I don't know the answer to the original question, I just know that the original answer by B G-13 is wrong. And it parallels how some Zionists are wrong about Palestinians.

Question: How did Greek influence shape the development of Church Slavonic?
https://www.quora.com/How-did-Greek-influence-shape-the-development-of-Church-Slavonic/answer/B-G-13-1

B G-13

Knows Hebrew

Jan 31

1.There was no such thing as Church Slavonic ,it was ans still is Old Church Bulgarian

2.Slavic ,Slavonic is a term in use since 16th.c

3. No such nationality as greek one in 10th.c

What are you even talking about?

Hans-Georg Lundahl

Jan 31

There was certainly a language called Greek in the 10th C.

And there were certainly Greek populations.

Perhaps you mean there was no exclusively Greek state, true. But your wording suggests more than that.

A

B G-13

Fri

Really ? Show me a genuine map with Greece on it in 10th.c then ! I guarantee you that you won't find a single genuine with the word Greece on it before 15th.c,16th.c .

If there was a such thing as “ancient Greeks “ that should be on sipme maps, or are you trying to tell me that ancient Greeks somehow missed to make a map of its own territory and rest of the world too?

So are you saying that there were “ancient Greeks “ but they never managed to have own state?

What are you even talking about ?

Hans-Georg Lundahl

Sat

I’m sorry, but “a map with a country named Greece” is simply the wrong criterium.

Greek doesn’t primarily mean “citizen of a country named Greece” it means “ethnic of the Greek ethnicity” …. which can obviously exist very well without there being any country named Greece.

The Ancient Greeks had several different states in the time of Pericles, just as 14th C. Italians also had several different states.

AC

B G-13

Tue

No it isn't a wrong criteria,simply because if there was an ancient Greeks as they claim to be an advanced civilisation, they would've be able to crate a nap with own territories, also others would've mentioned them .

Hans-Georg Lundahl

13h

Others did mention them.

Like the Romans.

AD

B G-13

Tue

There is no such thing as greek ethnicity !

The word Greci( greeks) is Roman and applied in late period of Rumelia ,where the nationality was Rum,over immigrants from East Africa as Beotians,only !

Hans-Georg Lundahl

13h

It applied in a very early people to the nationality later called Rum by Turks and Arabs, because the Greek ethnics had become Roman citizens.

6.II.2025

B G-13

There is no such thing as Greek ethnicity! Nor greek nationality. And it is a lie that Ottoman applied the term Rum ,you guys were called yourself Rum up to 18th.c even nowadays!

Hans-Georg Lundahl

You mean the term “Rhomaioi”?

Yes, but only since Romans conquered them. This happened in the last centuries preceding Christ.

Thanks for taking me for a Greek, it’s a compliment, but I’m actually Swede.

B

B G-13

Tue

So your criteria for ancient world is 10th.c ? Don't make laugh buddy !

Hans-Georg Lundahl

13h

I was not answering your point about “ancient Greeks” here, but the one about “10th C.”

Not my fault if you can’t keep track of what you wrote yourself, or what a certain thing of mine was answering. A tip for later, the latter is apparent in how comments under a Quora answer are nested.

6.II.2025

B G-13

Greek is. ROMAN word for immigrants from East Africa as the Beotians( dull,dumb) ,not a nationality

Hellas - not nationality either ,but a term for immigrants from Egypt into a cult towards Egyption El,which is Ethiopean Helios ,it is a religous term

Now show me a GENUINE map with Greece on it in 10th.c then? Hahaha! I bet you that you won't find any GENUINE map with Greece on it before 16th.,or 1829 for sure!

When you realise that there is not a single GENUINE map with Greece on it before 16th.c or 1829 ,then tell me how come 🤔 ancient ppl as Greek never to be on a map up to 18th.c ?

Answer is so simple ,there was no such thing as ancient Greece at all !

Go on ,I'm waiting for your to prove me ancient Greek existence.

Hans-Georg Lundahl

I’m waiting for you to ditch fake criteria.

Boeotians was by the way not originally anything meaning dumb, it was precisely a sub-group of the Greek nationality. With an originally Phoenician enclave.

For ancient times, there isn’t even very much called “maps” to begin with. A few mainly lost ones or preserved in Medieval copies. You get tables with road distances from place to place, only places are named, not regions, in the Roman Empire.

9.II.2025

B G-13

So anyway, all I'm asking you for a SINGLE GENUINE map with Greece on it before 16th.c or 1829 ,only saying that “ a few maps” a left it doesn't change the fact that “ ancient greece” doesn't exist in any map, but why ? Simply because there was no such thing as ancient Greece! As simple as that!

Roman were calling the Beotians dull and dumb ,this doesn't mean that the term beotian had a such meaning, and no ,the beotians were not part of a nation called Greeks, because there was no such nation as Greek, but the Romans got them this nickname Greci ,which had a negative meaning ,and yes they were immigrants from East Africa, mixed ppl

10.II.2025

Hans-Georg Lundahl

Ancient maps are usually illustrations of geography books, except the practical maps, like Tabula Peutingeriana.

BOTH of them lacked country names.

The question isn’t if the map in Ptolemy’s Geography book had the word Hellas or in Latin translation Graecia. The question is if the geography book itself contained the word in the text.

I think it did. Lots of other texts from back then did, and yes, I have read ANCIENT Greek. Just ten minutes ago someone was asking me about completing a sentence in MODERN Greek, which is as different from the former as Italian from Latin. I haven’t read Modern Greek. I have read ancient texts, some in Greek, more in Latin and even more than that in translation.

ΚΑΙ ἐγένετο μετὰ τὸ πατάξαι ᾿Αλέξανδρον τὸν Φιλίππου τὸν Μακεδόνα, ὃς ἐξῆλθεν ἐκ τῆς γῆς Χεττειείμ, καὶ ἐπάταξε τὸν Δαρεῖον βασιλέα Περσῶν καὶ Μήδων καὶ ἐβασίλευσεν ἀντ᾿ αὐτοῦ πρότερος ἐπὶ τὴν ῾Ελλάδα.

Et factum est, postquam percussit Alexander Philippi Macedo, qui primus regnavit in Graecia, egressus de terra Cethim, Darium regem Persarum et Medorum

Now it came to pass, after that Alexander the son of Philip the Macedonian, who first reigned in Greece, coming out of the land of Cethim, had overthrown Darius king of the Persians and Medes
[1 Machabees 1:1]

B G-13

Also Kingdom of Macedon isn't Javan( the indigenous ppl from the region Macedonia) ,but it has been named up after the region after attacking the Javan( Macedonians) and conquering part of the region .

Hans-Georg Lundahl

I think the text says that Macedon is Cethim.

Javan, south of Macedon, is Greece.

He also tried showing ancient Greek art from 5th C BC with faces of Black People (coins and vases). This suggests Greeks knew of their existence, but not that they were the main stock of the Greek.